Text test questions 12 страница

1. The class of immunoglobullin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human newborn is

A. *IgG

B. IgM

C. IgA

D. IgD

E. IgE

1. The class of immunoglobullin present in lowest concentration in the blood of a human is

A. IgG

B. IgM

C. IgA

D. IgD

E. *IgE

1. The effects of antibody on bacteria include each of the following EXCEPT:

A. Lysis of gram-negative bacteria in conjunction with complement

B. Enhancement of phagocytosis

C. *Inhibition of bacterial metabolism

D. Inhibition of adherence of bacteria to mucosal surfaces

E. Neutralization of toxins

1. The Fc region mediates all of the below EXCEPT binding to

A. host tissue.

B. various cells of the immune system.

C. some phagocytic cells.

D. lysosomes.

E. *all are correct.

1. The first tenet of clonal selection theory relies specifically on

A. combinatorial joinings.

B. somatic mutations.

C. variations in the splicing process.

D. *B-cell clones.

E. T-cell clones.

1. The fragment required for an IgG molecule to bind complement is

A. Fab

B. *Fc

C. Variable part of a L-chain

D. Variable part of a H-chain

E. Constant parts of the L-chains

1. Which fragment of an IgG molecule to bind complement?

A. Fab

B. *Fc

C. Variable part of a L-chain

D. Variable part of a H-chain

E. Constant parts of the L-chains

1. The functional equivalent to the Bursa of Fabricius in humans is:

A. the spleen

B. the thymus

C. *the bone marrow

D. the appendix

E. GALT

1. The main function of lysozyme:

A. aggregates bacteria

B. captures free iron

C. *breaks down the bacterial cell wall

D. enhances phagocytosis

E. is antiviral

1. The main host defense against bacterial exotoxins is

A. Activated macrophages secreting proteases

B. *IgG and IgM neutralizing antibodies

C. Helper T cells

D. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin

E. Cleave exotoxins by antibodies

1. What mechanism of defense against bacterial exotoxins is main

A. Activated macrophages secreting proteases

B. *IgG and IgM neutralizing antibodies

C. Helper T cells

D. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin

E. Cleave exotoxins by antibodies

1. The most common type of circulating white cell is the:

A. *neutrophil

B. lymphocyte

C. basophil

D. eosinophil

E. monocyte

1. The portion of an antigen molecule that stimulates an antibody response is called the

A. specific receptor

B. *epitope

C. antibody determinant.

D. active center.

E. antigen binding place.

1. The single radial diffusion assay (Mancini technique) quantifies

A. antibodies.

B. *antigen.

C. immune complexes.

D. cytokines.

E. All of the above.

1. The TcR is found on:

A. all mature lymphocytes

B. *all mature T lymphocytes

C. all mature B lymphocytes

D. all NK cells

E. all monocytes

1. The thymus is considered to be:

A. *a primary lymphoid organ

B. a secondary lymphoid organ

C. a reticuloendothelial organ

D. a specialized lymph node

E. a complement producing organ

1. What are cells expressed CD3 surface antigen:

A. *T cells

B. В cells

C. monocytes

D. granulocytes

E. mast cells

1. What is function of T-killer cells?

A. *take part in antiviral immunity

B. allergy

C. autoimmunity

D. antibodies synthesis

E. all of these

1. What of the following are not organs of immune system?

A. *thyroid gland

B. spleen

C. lymph nodes

D. GALT

E. tonsil gland

1. Where do human T lymphocytes locate:

A. *Are found mainly in the cortex region of the lymph node.

B. Are found in the red.pulp of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen.

C. Make up 65-85% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.

1. Which cells do antigen-presenting cells process antigen need to activation?

A. B-cells

B. T-killers

C. NK-cells

D. Mast cells

E. *T-helpers

1. Which do from following cell markers belong for B lymphocyte?

A. CD 38 marker.

B. CD 25 marker.

C. CD 4 marker.

D. CD 3 marker

E. *CD 19 marker.

1. Which do one of the following substances released by activated helper T cells can activate T killers?

A. trasfer factor

B. *Gamma interferon

C. Interleukin- 6

D. Interleukin-4

E. lymphotoxin

1. Which do T cells activate the functions of B cells and other T cells.

A. Sensitized

B. *Helper

C. Cytotoxic

D. Natural killer

E. K cells

1. Which do T cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells.

A. Sensitized

B. Cytotoxic

C. *Helper

D. Natural killer

E. K cells

1. Which immunoglobulin is the primary antibody in saliva, tears, and intestinal and genital secretions?

A. IgG

B. IgM

C. IgE

D. *IgA

E. IgD

1. Which immunoglobulin mediates immediate hypersensitivity and is involved in immune response to parasitic infections?

A. IgG

B. IgM

C. *IgE

D. IgA

E. IgD

1. Which of the following are function of B-cells?

A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells

B. Respond to antigens by making antibodies

C. Act as antigen-processing cells

D. *All of the above

E. None of the above

1. Which of the following cell types are known to have Fc receptors on their surface?

A. follicular dendritic cells

B. macrophages

C. basophils

D. eosinophils

E. *all of the above

1. Which of the following classes of MHC proteins are produced only by antigen presenting cells?

A. Class I

B. *Class II

C. Class III

D. Class II & Class III

E. Class I & Class III

1. Which of the following components of complement possess the binding site for the Fc portion of IgG or IgM?

A. C1s

B. C9

C. *C1q

D. C3

E. C5

1. Which of the following cytokines does function as an endogenous pyrogen?

A. IL-2

B. *IL-1

C. IL-6

D. TNF

E. IFN

1. Which of the following pairs of cytokines could be said to have antagonistic activities?

A. IL-1 and TNF

B. IL-12 and IFN-gamma

C. *IL-10 and IFN-gamma

D. IL-4 and IL-5

E. IFN-gamma and IL-2

1. Which of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is noncorrect:

A. *They are found on the surface of both B and T cells

B. They have a high degree of polymorphism

C. They are involved in the presentation of antigen by macrophages

D. They have a binding site for CD4 proteins

E. They are main in succefull transplantation

1. Which of the following tests depends on the presence of protein A on certain strains of Staphylococcus aureus?

A. Latex agglutination (LA)

B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

C. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)

D. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)

E. *Coagglutination (COA)

1. Which of the following types of CD proteins is found only on T cytotoxic lymphocytes?

A. CD2

B. CD3

C. CD4

D. CD5

E. *CD8

1. Which one of the following statements concerning immunoglobulin allotypes is CORRECT?

A. Allotypes are found only on heavy chains

B. Allotypes are determined by class I MHC genes

C. Allotypes are confined to the variable regions

D. *Allotypes are due to genetic polymorphism within a species

E. Allotypes are found only on light chains

1. Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells?

A. *Alpha interferon

B. Gamma interferon

C. Interleukin-2

D. Interleukin-4

E. Interleukin-10

1. Which one of the following substances is released by activated killer T cells?

A. Alpha interferon

B. *Gamma interferon

C. Interleukin-5

D. Interleukin-4

E. Interleukin-10

1. Which substances can produce Th1 cells?

A. Alpha interferon

B. *Gamma interferon

C. Interleukin-5

D. Interleukin-6

E. bradikidin

1. Which type of antibody is MOST effective in activating complement?

A. IgE

B. IgG1

C. IgG2

D. IgG3

E. *IgM

1. A nosocomial infection is an infection

A. that can come from the patient's own normal flora.

B. acquired during hospitalization

C. always caused by medical personnel

D. a and b are correct.

E. *b and c are correct

1. All of following are the factors of transmission of an infection except:

A. water

B. *bacterium carrier

C. dirty hand

D. polluted foodstuff

E. soil

1. All the following are the factors of virulens, except:

A. aggressins;

B. hyaluronidase

C. fibrinolysin

D. lecithinasae

E. *flagella

1. Aminoglycosides can cause:

A. Inhibition of bacterial RNA polymerase

B. Inhibition of cross-linking of peptidoglycan

C. *Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit

D. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

E. No correct answer

1. An antibiotic that disrupts the normal flora can cause

A. the teeth to turn brown

B. aplastic anemia

C. a superinfection

D. *disbacteriosis

E. hepatotoxicity

1. Antibiotic altering enzymes commonly cause resistance to which of the following?

A. Vancomycin

B. Trimethoprim

C. *Aminoglycosides

D. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)

E. All are correct

1. Bacteriemia is:

A. a state, when bacteria colonize many organs and tissues of an organism;

B. *a presence of viable bacteri in blood;

C. a state, when there are toxins of bacteria in the blood.

D. a long preservation of the infectious microbes in the organism;

E. a contamination of the organism by two or more causative agents.

1. Chloramphenicol can cause:

A. Inhibition of bacterial RNA polymerase

B. Inhibition of cross-linking of peptidoglycan

C. *Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit

D. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

E. No correct answer

1. Choose the factors of transmission of an infection

A. sick human

B. bacterium carrier

C. sick animal

D. *polluted foodstuff

E. bacterial capsule

1. Choose the antiphagocytic factors of bacteria:

A. endotoxin

B. hyaluronidase

C. enterotoxins

D. *aggressins

E. haemolysin

1. Choose the factors of invasion:

A. urease

B. *enterotoxins

C. bacterial capsule

D. aggressins;

E. fibrinolysin

1. Choose the main properties of bacterial endotoxins:

A. proteins.

B. *lipopolysaccharide complex

C. is encoded by genes on the bacterium chromosom

D. have a tissue tropism

E. thermolabile

1. Choose the main properties of bacterial exotoxins:

A. *proteins.

B. lipopolysaccharide complex

C. polysaccharide substanses

D. have no a tissue tropism

E. thermostabile

1. Choose the source of an infection

A. soil

B. *sick person

C. dirty hand

D. mosquitoes

E. louses

1. Droplet nuclei are significant in the transmission of diseases of the:

A. digestive system,

B. reproductive system,

C. nervous system.

D. *respiratory system.

E. skin

1. Drug that prevent the formation of the bacterial cell wall are:

A. quinolons

B. *beta-lactams

C. tetracyclines

D. aminoglycosides

E. cloramphenicoles

1. Each of the following statements concerning penicillin is correct EXCEPT

A. The drug is bacteriostatic

B. The drug inhibits cell wall synthesis

C. The drug is made by a fungus

D. *The drug may destroy bacteria by activating their own autolysins

E. No correct answer

1. Each of the following statements concerning endotoxins is correct EXCEPT:

A. The toxicity of endotoxins is due to the lipid portion of the molecule

B. *Endotoxins are found in most gram-positive bacteria

C. Endotoxins are located in the cell wall

D. The antigenicity of somatic (O) antigen is due to repeating oligosaccharides

E. No correct answer

1. Each of the following statements concerning exotoxins is correct EXCEPT:

A. Exotoxins are polypeptides

B. Exotoxins are more easily inactivated by heat than are endotoxins

C. *Exotoxins are less toxic than the same amount of endotoxins

D. Exotoxins can be converted to toxoids

E. No correct answer

1. Each of the following statements regarding the selective action of antibiotics on bacteria is correct EXCEPT:

A. Chloramphenicol affects the large subunit of the bacterial ribosome, which is different from the large subunit of the human ribosome

B. Isoniazid affects the DNA polymerase of bacteria but not that of human cells

C. Sulfonamides affect folic acid synthesis in bacteria, a pathway that does not occur in human cells

D. *Penicillins affect bacteria rather than human cells because bacteria have a cell wall, whereas human cells do not

E. No correct answer

1. Endotoxins

A. *all have the same effect

B. are found in both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria

C. are part of the Gram-positive cell wall only

D. are heat labile

E. are proteins

1. Exotoxins are responsible for:

A. Fever

B. Inflammatory reactions

C. General intoxication

D. Decreasing of the blood pressure

E. *Specific action depending on the type of toxin

1. Formites are:

A. insect vectors.

B. animate objects.

C. an ancient tribe of Israel.

D. *inanimate objects.

E. biological vectors.

1. How can the virulence be increased?

A. *Transformation

B. disinfectant

C. antimicrobial preparation

D. immune sera

E. all are correct

1. Indicate the factors of transmission of an infection

A. sick human

B. bacterium carrier

C. sick animal

D. *polluted foodstuff

E. bacterial capsule

1. Indicate the source of an infection

A. soil

B. *sick person

C. dirty hand

D. mosquitoes

E. louses

1. Infection diseases are transmitted from its source. Choose the source of an infection

A. polluted foodstuff

B. different objects

C. *sick animal

D. mosquitoes

E. fly

1. All are correct EXCEPT:

A. Vancomycin acts by inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis

B. Quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, act by inhibiting the DNA gyrase of bacteria

C. *Erythromycin is a bactericidal drug that disrupts cell membranes by a detergentlike action

D. Aminoglycosides such as streptomycin are bactericidal drugs that inhibit protein synthesis

E. No correct answer

1. Penicillin G remains highly active against which of the following?

A. Enterococcus

B. Staphylococcus aureus

C. *Neisseria meningitidis (meningococci)

D. Escherichia coli

E. All are correct

1. Penicillin inhibits bacteria because it:

A. Binds to D-alanyl- D-alanine in ribosomes.

B. Binds to D-alanyl- D-alanine in cell wall peptidoglycan precursors.

C. *Resembles D-alanyl-D-alanine and binds to cell wall synthesis enzymes.

D. Disrupts the inner membrane.

E. All answers are right

1. Penicillins can cause:

A. Inhibition of bacterial RNA polymerase

B. *Inhibition of cross-linking of peptidoglycan

C. Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit

D. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

E. No correct answer

1. People get diseases mostly from:

A. their pets.

B. water

C. *other people

D. food

E. air

1. Persistence is the state of:

A. *an occult form of disease without clinical sings;

B. a long preservation of the infectious microbes in the organism;

C. a contamination of the organism by two or more causative agents.

D. a state, when bacteria colonize many organs and tissues of an organism;

E. a presence of viable bacteria blood;

1. R factor are__________that contain a code for _______

A. genes, replication

B. *plasmids, drug resistance

C. transposons, interferon

D. plasmids, conjugation

E. IS elements, mutation

1. Reinfection is:

A. *a repeated infection by the same species of microorganisms responsible for the disease which terminated in convalescence;

B. a repeated infection of an organism, when main disease has not ended;

C. a state, when an infectious disease is spread to entire countries or continents

D. a state, when bacteria colonize many organs and tissues of an organism;

E. a presence of viable bacteria blood;

1. Ribosomal resistance is a cause of resistance to:

A. *Streptomycin

B. Vancomycin

C. Sulfonamides

D. Imipenem

E. All are correct

1. Rifampin can cause:

A. *Inhibition of bacterial RNA polymerase

B. Inhibition of cross-linking of peptidoglycan

C. Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit

D. Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

E. No correct answer

1. Select the ONE lettered option that MOST closely associated with inhibition of folic acid synthesis

A. Penicillins

B. Aminoglycosides

C. Chloramphenicol

D. Rifampin

E. *Sulfonamides

1. Select the ONE lettered option that MOST closely associated with inhibition of bacterial RNA polymerase:

A. Penicillins

B. Aminoglycosides

C. Chloramphenicol

D. *Rifampin

E. Sulfonamides

1. Select the ONE lettered option that MOST closely associated with inhibition of cross-linking of peptidoglycan

A. *Penicillins

B. Aminoglycosides

C. Chloramphenicol

D. Rifampin

E. Sulfonamides

1. Show virulent factor which can cause splitting connective tissue of a host?

A. Plasmocoagulase

B. IgA protease

C. Fibrinolysine

D. *Hyaluronidase

E. Hemolysine

1. Sulfonamides can cause:

A. Inhibition of bacterial RNA polymerase

B. Inhibition of cross-linking of peptidoglycan

C. Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit

D. *Inhibition of folic acid synthesis

E. No correct answer

1. Sulfonamides drugs initially disrupt which process?

A. *folic acid synthesis

B. transcription

C. enzymes production

D. protein synthesis

E. polysaccharides

1. The antiphagocytic factors of bacteria are

A. endotoxin;

B. bacterial capsule

C. hyaluronidase;

D. plasmocoagulase;

E. *B and D

1. The bacterial structure that mediates adherence is the

A. Flagellum

B. Endotoxin

C. *Pilus

D. Peptidoglycan

E. Cell wall

1. The bacterial structure that mediates adherence is the

A. Flagellum

B. Endotoxin

C. *Pilus

D. Peptidoglycan

E. Cell wall

1. The beta-lactamase of Staphylococcus aureus inactivates which of the following?

A. Oxacillin

B. Methicillin

C. *Ampicillin

D. Vancomycin

E. Vancomycin

1. The biological effects of endotoxin include each of the following EXCEPT:

A. Fever

B. Activation of the coagulation cascade

C. Hypotension

D. *Opsonization

E. Diarrhea

1. The effects of endotoxin include each of the following EXCEPT:

A. *Opsonization

B. Fever

C. Activation of the coagulation cascade

D. Hypotension

E. No correct answer

1. The MIC is the _____________of drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbe

A. a largest concentration

B. standard dose

C. *smallest concentration

D. lowest dilution

E. beginning concentration

1. Vancomycin inhibits bacteria because it:

A. *binds to peptidoglycan precursors ending in D-alanine-D-alanine

B. binds to ribosomal subunits ending in D-alanine-D-alanine

C. inhibits protein synthesis

D. disrupts the inner membrane

E. all are correct

1. Virulence can be decreased by all ways, except:

A. *transduction

B. disinfectant

C. lysogenic conversion

D. antimicrobial preparation

E. high temperatures

1. Virulence can be increased by

A. *Transformation

B. Disinfectant

C. antimicrobial preparation

D. immune sera

E. all are correct

1. What does mean ‘inhibitory concentration (MIC)’?

A. *Most concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a particular pathogen.

B. Lowest drug concentration that kills the pathogen

C. Lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a particular pathogen.

D. Drug concentration required for clinical treatment of a particular infection

E. Most drug concentration that kills the pathogen

1. What is the antiphagocytic factors of bacteria:

A. endotoxin

B. hyaluronidase

C. *plasmocoagulase

D. pillus

E. haemolysin

1. What is the main properties of bacterial exotoxins:

A. lipids.

B. lipopolysaccharide complex

C. is encoded by genes on the bacterium chromosom

D. *have a tissue tropism

E. thermostabile

1. Which of following is the source of an infection?

A. soil

B. *sick person

C. dirty hand

D. mosquitoes

E. louses

1. Which of following bacterial structures are known to formation drug resistance?

A. bacterial enzymes

B. *plasmids

C. bacterial chromosome

D. cytoplasm

E. ribosome

1. Which of the following antibiotics interfere with protein synthesis?

A. Aminoglycosides (or tetracyclines, erythromycin, clindamycin)

B. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)

C. Rifampin

D. *Tetracyclines

E. All are correct

1. Which of the following antibiotics interfere with folic acid synthesis?

A. Aminoglycosides (or tetracyclines, erythromycin, clindamycin)

B. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)

C. *Sulfonamides

D. Rifampin

E. Cephalosporins

1. Which of the following antibiotics interfere with cell wall synthesis?

A. erythromycins (tetracyclines, aminoglycosides)

B. sulfonamides

C. penicillins

D. pyrimethamine

E. *Cephalosporins

1. Which of the following antibiotics interfere with DNA replication?

A. erythromycins (tetracyclines, aminoglycosides)

B. sulfonamides

C. *Fluoroquinolones

D. Pyrimethamine

E. Penicillin

1. Which of the following are narrow spectrum drugs?

A. Vancomycin and Cephalosporins

B. Cephalosporins and Aztreonam

C. *Aztreonam and Vancomycin

D. Tetracycline and Vancomycin

E. All are correct

1. Which of the following has little if any activity against gram-negative bacteria?

A. ampicillin

B. aminoglycosides

C. cephalosporins

D. *oxacillin

E. chloramphenical

1. Which of the following is a beta lactamase inducer?

A. chloramphenicol

B. *cephalosporin

C. aminoglycoside

D. quinolone

E. sulfonamide

1. Which of the following is considered a beta-lactam?

A. vancomycin

B. *imipenem

C. azithromycin

D. pyrimethamine

E. All are correct

1. Which one of the following BEST describes the mode of action of endotoxin?

A. Degrades lecithin in cell membranes

B. Inactivates elongation factor 2

C. Blocks release of acetylcholine

D. *Causes the release of biologically active mediators, responsible for shock reaction

E. No correct answer

1. Which one of the following has little if any activity against Gram-negative bacilli?

A. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

B. Fluoroquinolone

C. *Vancomycin

D. Cephalosporin

E. Aztreonam

1. Which statement is MOST accurate regarding the aminoglycosides?

A. It is bacteriostatic

B. *It inhibits protein synthesis

C. It prevents formation of folic acid

D. It inhibits DNA synthesis

E. No correct answer

1. Which virulent factor from following capable of splitting connective tissue of a host?

A. Plasmocoagulase

B. *Hyaluronidase

C. IgA protease

D. Fibrinolysine

E. Hemolysine

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