Text test questions 11 страница

1. What is the mechanism of action of second type hypersensitivities?

A. IgE reacting with mast cells

B. activation of cytotoxic T cells

C. IgG-allergen complexes that clog epithelial tissues

D. *complement-induced lysis of cells in the presence of antibodies

E. activation of natural killer cells

1. What is the pair serums:

A. monozygotic twins’ serums

B. dizygotic twins’ serum

C. serums taken from different veins

D. serums of two patients with same diseases

E. *serums of one patient, the diseases taken in dynamics

1. What is the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection?

A. They are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages.when they attack the donor cells

B. *They are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor cells

C. They induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft

D. They induce IgE which mediates graft rejection

E. They induce complement depended cytolysis of the graft

1. What is toxoid?

A. type of antibody that combines with a toxin,

B. type of bacterium that resists phagocytosis.

C. type of enzyme that destroys toxins,

D. type of virus.

E. *inactivated toxin.

1. What kind of immundeficiency is chronic granulomatous?

A. NADPH oxidase.

B. MPO.

C. G6PD.

D. No correct answer.

E. *all answers are true

1. What kind of precipitation test does use for definition toxin production of diphtheritic cultures:

A. ring precipitation

B. *in gel

C. on glass-slide

D. detailed

E. indirect

1. What microorganism’s suspension which binds the heavy chains of antibody is used in the coagglutination test. Choose him among listed:

A. Micrococcus luteus

B. *Staphylococcus aureus

C. Escherichia coli

D. Streptococcus viridans

E. Salmonella typhi

1. What modern immunological methods do serve for the detection of the minimum concentration of viral antigens?

A. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

B. ELISA

C. Method with the use of monoclonal antibodies

D. Radioimmune method (RIA)

E. *All of transferred

1. What patent’ material is used for serological diagnostics (definition of a level of antibodies)?

A. *serum of blood

B. pus

C. sputum

D. urine

E. liquor

1. What purpose necessary to heat up the patient’s serum at 56 °С – 30 min. for before performing of the CFT?

A. For elimination of heterophiles antibodies

B. For diminishing of properdin’s activity

C. For the decline of lysozymes’ activity

D. *For elimination of complement

E. For oppressing of normal antibodies

1. What reaction does enable to set the antigen identity, simirality or dissimilarity?

A. The radial immunodiffusion of Manchini

B. The single dimension immunodiffusion in one dimension (Oudin procedure)

C. *The double immunodiffusion in two dimension (Ouchterlony)

D. The double diffusion in one dimension (Oakley-Fulthorpe)

E. The ring precipitation

1. What structural parts of immunoglobulins are used for their division into the classes?

A. Light chains

B. *Heavy chains

C. Domains

D. Fc- fragment

E. Fab-fragments

1. What structures are primarily responsible for such specificity?

A. Cytotoxic T cells

B. *Hypervariable regions in domains of B cells

C. The major histocompatibility complex

D. Specific T cell receptors

E. Memory cells

1. What structures of antigens are responsible for their variety?

A. Amino acid

B. Polysaccharidess

C. *Epitope

D. Protein

E. Porin

1. When immune complexes from the serum are deposited on glomerular basement membrane, damage to the membrane is caused mainly by

A. gamma interferon

B. phagocytosis

C. cytotoxic T cells

D. *enzymes released by polymorphonuclear cells

E. natural killers

1. Which allergies are T-cell mediated?

A. type I

B. type II

C. type III

D. *type IV

E. all are correct

1. Which antibodies cause eosinophils to bind to tissue parasites, causing lytic and inflammatory mediators to destroy the parasites?

A. *IgE

B. IgM

C. IgA

D. only IgM and IgA

E. all of these

1. Which antibody(ies) can bind to some extracellular viruses and inactivate them?

A. IgG

B. IgM

C. IgA

D. Only IgM and IgA

E. *all of these

1. Which antibody(ies) can prevent bacterial from colonizing mucosal surfaces and initiating the disease process?

A. IgG

B. IgM

C. *IgA

D. Only IgG and IgM

E. all of these

1. ?Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility?

A. Atopic or anaphylactic

B. *Cytotoxic

C. Immune complex

D. Delayed

E. Autoimmune

1. Which disease would be most similar to AIDS in its pathology?

A. B cell defect.

B. *Т cell defect.

C. Complement deficiency.

D. Phagocyte Deficiencies

E. No correct answer

1. Which immunological reaction would normally be used to screen for levels of immunoglobulins in a patient?

A. Fluorescent antibody tests

B. Rocket electrophoresis

C. Double Diffusion in agar

D. *Immunoelectrophoresis

E. Ring precipitation

1. Which ingredient among listed can be included into indicator system of the CFT?

A. Specific antibody and complement

B. Specific antigen and complement

C. *Sheep red blood cells and hemolysin

D. Inactivated by temperature patient’s serum

E. Serum of guinea-pig

1. Which is the working doze of hemolytic serum (a credit 1:1200) for CFT:

A.: 50

B.: 100

C. *1: 200

D.: 400

E.: 3600

1. Which macromolecule is currently not being used as a vaccine in humans?

A. Capsular polysaccharides

B. Recombinant surface antigens

C. Inactivated exotoxins

D. *DNA-based

E. All of the above

1. Which major problem do immunocompromised patients with bone marrow transplantation have?

A. *potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease

B. high risk of T cell leukemia

C. inability to use a live donor

D. delayed hypersensitivity

E. autoimmune reaction

1. Which method can detect IgG on the glomerular basement membrane in a kidney tissue section?

A. precipitin test

B. complement fixation test

C. agglutination test

D. coagglutination test

E. *indirect fluorescent-antibody test

1. Which of following is secondary immunodeficiency

A. DiGeorge's syndrome

B. *AIDS

C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

D. Ataxia-telangiectasia

E. Chronic granulomatous disease

1. Which of following tests are/is not used for the first level of immune status assessment?

A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);

B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;

C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;

D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.

E. *Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)

1. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with live vaccines?

A. Single dose is immunogenic.

B. Dose is less.

C. Strict conditions of storage are essential.

D. Only humoral response is elicited.

E. It can mutate

1. Which of the following involves separation of antigens by size on a gel, followed by diffusion and precipitation?

A. Flow cytometry

B. Double diffusion immunoassay

C. *Immunoelectrophoresis

D. Direct immunosorbent assay

E. Indirect immunosorbent assay

1. Which of the following is (are) way(s) that the complement system aids in the defensive responses of an organism?

A. lysis of antibody coated eucaryotic cells or bacteria

B. attract phagocytic cells

C. activation of phagocytic cells

D. *all of these are ways that the complement system aids in the defensive responses of an organism.

E. correct answers absent

1. Which of the following is most commonly involved in graft rejections?

A. Complement proteins

B. ABO antibodies

C. *MHC antigens

D. MHC antibodies

E. Mast cells

1. Which of the following is used for typing when a patient is being prepared for an organ transplant?

A. *MHC class I molecules

B. MHC class II molecules

C. MHC class III molecules

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

1. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for the type IV hypersensitivity reaction in the school pupil?

A. expression of antigen epitopes on B cells

B. expression of allergen epitopes on CD8 +T cells

C. IgE reaction with mast cells

D. reaction of allergen with the Ti and CD4 markers of B cells

E. *T helper cell reaction with the antigen epitope

1. Which of the following vaccine is attenuated?

A. Dysentery vaccines.

B. Cholera vaccines

C. *BCG

D. Diphtheria vaccines.

E. Solk polio vaccines

1. Which of the following vaccines is live?

A. Salk.

B. *Sabin.

C. TAB.

D. Human diploid cell rabies vaccine.

E. DPT

1. Which of the following would be a Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity?

A. hayfever

B. *allergic contact dermatitis

C. glomerulonephritis

D. penicillin reaction

E. blood transfusion reaction

1. Which of the listed techniques of antibodies detection is the most sensitive?

A. Agglutination test

B. Precipitation test

C. Radial immunodiffusion test

D. *Radioimmune test

E. Immunoelectrophoresis

1. Which one of the following is the BEST method of reducing the effect of graft-versus-host disease in a bone marrow recipient?

A. Matching the complement components of donor and recipient

B. Administering alpha interferon

C. *Removing mature T cells from the graft

D. Removing pre-B cells from the graft

E. Using monoclonal antibodies

1. Which one of the following properties of antibodies is NOT dependent on the structure of the heavy-chain constant region?

A. Ability to cross the placenta

B. Isotype (class)

C. Ability to fix complement

D. *Affinity for antigen

E. Ability to opsonization

1. Which process is used to detect the presence of antibodies in serum following an individual's exposure to microorganisms?

A. direct immunofluorescence

B. *indirect immunofluorescence

C. gel electrophoresis

D. countercurrent immunoelectrophoresis

E. all are correct

1. Which test involves separation of antigens by size on a gel, followed by diffusion and precipitation?

A. Direct immunosorbent assay

B. Double diffusion immunoassay

C. Flow cytometry

D. *Immunoelectrophoresis

E. Indirect immunosorbent assay

1. Which test would normally be used to screen for abnormal levels of immunoglobulins in a patient suspected of having leukkemia?

A. Fluorescent antibody tests

B. Rocket electrophoresis

C. Double Diffusion in agar

D. *Immunoelectrophoresis

E. Ring precipitation

1. Which type of allergy best describes Rh incompatibility in newborn?

A. atopic or anaphylactic

B. *cytotoxic

C. immune complex

D. delayed

E. autoallergy

1. Widespread immunity that protects the population from the spread of disease is called

A. herd immunity

B. seropositivity

C. cross reactivity

D. epidemic prophylaxis

E. *population immunity

1. Wright’s agglutination test is used for serological diagnostic of special dangerous infections. Select such an ilness among listed?

A. *brucellosis

B. cholera

C. tularemia

D. typhoid

E. anthrax

1. Н-agglutination a bacterium stick together:

A. *By flagellas

B. By bodies

C. By capsules

D. By hairs

E. By proteins

1. Which of the following immunoglobulins is responsible for passing the placental barrier and attacking the Rh + fetal red blood cells in hemolytic disease of the newborn (erythroblastosis fetalis)?

A. IgA

B. IgD

C. IgE

D. *IgG

E. IgM

1. Which one of the following statements BEST explains the relationship between inflammation of the heart (carditis) and infection with group A beta-hemolytic streptococci?

A. *Streptococcal antigens induce antibodies cross-reactive with heart tissue

B. Streptococci are polyclonal activators of B cells

C. Streptococcal antigens bind to IgE on the surface of heart tissue and histamine is released

D. Streptococci are ingested by neutrophils that release proteases that damage heart tissue

E. Streptococci produce exotoxin B(protease) that destroy heart tissue

1. Which two classes of immunoglobulins are synthesized almost simultaneously under the influence of foreign agent, Although one of these classes increases in number and decreases in concentration more quickly?

A. *IgM and IgG

B. Ig M and IgD

C. IgG and IgD

D. Ig An and IgD

E. IgA and IgG

1. Your patient is a child who has no detectable T cells. This immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in

A. *the thymus

B. the bursal equivalent

C. bone marrow

D. T cell-B cell interaction

E. stem cells originating in the bone marrow

1. Your patient is a child who has no detectable T or B cells. This immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in

A. the thymus

B. the bursal equivalent

C. T cell-B cell interaction

D. *stem cells originating in the bone marrow

E. gene encoding tyrosin kinase

1. A major role of macrophages is to present foreign antigens to:

A. other APCs

B. B lymphocytes

C. *Th lymphocytes

D. Neutrophils

E. NK cells

1. A T lymphocyte which expresses CD3 must also express:

A. *the TcR

B. CD4

C. Class II MHC

D. membrane Ig

E. the BcR

1. An activated T helper lymphocyte will have each of the cell markers on its surface except for the:

A. CD 38 marker.

B. CD 25 marker.

C. CD 4 marker.

D. CD 3 marker

E. *CD 19 marker.

1. An antigen is

A. a hapten that combines with an antibody

B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these antibodies

C. a small molecule that attaches to cells

D. a carbohydrate

E. a protein that combines with antibodies

1. An immunoglobulin is a

A. protein.

B. carbohydrate.

C. *glycoprotein.

D. fatty acid.

E. nucleic acid.

1. An antibody is a

A. protein.

B. carbohydrate.

C. *glycoprotein.

D. fatty acid.

E. nucleic acid.

1. Antigen presenting cell express which one of the following on their surfaces?

A. IgE

B. Gamma interferon

C. Class I MHC antigens

D. *Class II MHC antigens

E. Class III MHC antigens

1. Macrophages, dendritic cells and B-cells had activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their surfaces?

A. IgE

B. Gamma interferon

C. Class I MHC antigens

D. *Class II MHC antigens

E. Class III MHC antigens

1. Antigen-presenting cells process antigen to?

A. B-cells

B. T-killers

C. NK-cells

D. Mast cells

E. *T-helpers

1. Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper Tcells must express which one of the following on their surfaces?

A. IgE

B. Gamma interferon

C. Class I MHC antigens

D. *Class II MHC antigens

E. gM

1. APC express which one of the following on their surfaces?

A. IgE

B. Gamma interferon

C. Class I MHC antigens

D. *Class II MHC antigens

E. Class III MHC antigens

1. CD3 surface antigen is expressed only by:

A. *T cells.

B. В cells.

C. monocytes.

D. granulocytes.

E. mast cells

1. CD4 and CD8 both:

A. bind to Class II MHC

B. function in signal transduction

C. bind to B7

D. *T cells

E. B1 and B2 cells

1. CD40 on the surface of B lymphocytes binds to which of the following Th cell surface molecules?

A. ICAM

B. TcR

C. *CD40L

D. CD16

E. CD8

1. CD8 is a glycoprotein found on:

A. all lymphocytes

B. B cells

C. *cytotoxic T cells

D. helper T cells

E. NK cells

1. CD8 surface antigen is present in:

A. helper Т cells.

B. *cytotoxic Т cells.

C. NK cells

D. both of the above.

E. none of the above.

1. Choose correct statement about important function of antibody in a host defense from the next:

A. Activation of lysozyme that degrades the cell wall

B. Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins

C. *Facilitation of phagocytosis

D. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis

E. Inhibition of bacterial metabolism

1. Choose primary lymphoid organ/s:

A. thymus

B. bursa of Fabricius.

C. bone marrow.

D. *all of the above are correct

E. all of the above are false

1. Choose the correct sentence according antigen:

A. a hapten that combines with an antibody,

B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these antibodies.

C. a small molecule that attaches to cells.

D. a carbohydrate

E. a protein that combines with antibodies.

1. Choose the correct statements concerning haptens:

A. A hapten is complex antigen-antibody

B. *A hapten cannot induce an antibody by itself; rather, it must be bound to a carrier protein to be able to induce antibody

C. Haptens are big molecules of protein

D. Haptens must be processed by CD8 cells to become immunogenic

E. Haptens must be processed by MHC II to become immunogenic

1. Class II MHC molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the following types of cells?

A. epithelial cells

B. *macrophages

C. nerve cells

D. basophils

E. all of the above

1. Compared to the secondary antibody response, the primary response

A. *has a longer lag phase.

B. has a more rapid log phase.

C. persists for a longer plateau period.

D. attains a higher IgG titer.

E. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.

1. Cytotoxic T cells can kill target cells by inserting into their membranes proteins called:

A. perforations

B. *perforins

C. perforinse

D. performins

E. perporins

1. Cytotoxic T cells induced by infection with virus A will kill

A. target cells from the same host.infected with any virus

B. *infected by virus A and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells

C. infected by virus A and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells

D. infected with a different virus and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells

E. infected with a different virus and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells

1. During the maturation of a B lymphocyte, the first immunoglobulin heavy chain synthesized is the

A. *mu chain

B. gamma chain

C. epsilon chain

D. alpha chain

E. kappa chain

1. The first immunoglobulin heavy chain synthesized is the

A. *mu chain

B. gamma chain

C. epsilon chain

D. alpha chain

E. kappa chain

1. Each of the following statements concerning class I MHC proteins is correct EXCEPT:

A. They are cell surface proteins on virtually all cells

B. They are recognition elements for cytotoxic T cells

C. They are codominantly expressed

D. *They are important in the skin test response to Mycobacterium tuberculosis

E. They are absent onto red blood cells

1. Find the correct sentence according antigen:

A. a hapten that combines with an antibody

B. *a substance that incites an antibody response and can combine specifically with these antibodies.

C. a small molecule that attaches to cells.

D. a carbohydrate

E. a protein that combines with antibodies.

1. Find the correct statements concerning haptens:

A. *A hapten can combine with an antibody

B. A hapten can induce an antibody by itself

C. Haptens are big molecules of protein

D. Haptens must be processed by CD8 cells to become immunogenic

E. Haptens must be processed by MHC II to become immunogenic

1. Human T lymphocytes:

A. *Are found mainly in the cortex region of the lymph node.

B. Are found in the red.pulp of the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) of the spleen.

C. Make up 65-85% of the peripheral blood lymphocytes.

D. All of the above.

E. None of the above.

1. Idiotypic determinants are located within

A. *Hypervariable regions of heavy and light chains

B. Constant regions of light chains

C. Constant regions of heavy chains

D. The hinge region

E. Constant regions of light and heavy chains

1. If art individual was genetically unable to make J chains, which immunoglobulin(s) would be affected?

A. IgG

B. IgM

C. IgA

D. IgG and IgM

E. *IgM and IgA

1. Immunoglobulin molecules would be found positioned in the plasma membrane of which of the following types of cells?

A. *B lymphocytes

B. Monocytes

C. T lymphocytes

D. NK cells

E. be recognized by natural killers

1. Individuals of blood group type AB

A. are Rh(D)-negative

B. *are "universal recipients" of transfusions

C. have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies

D. have the same haplotype

E. are "universal donors" of transfusions

1. Isotypes refer to variations in the

A. light chain variable region.

B. light chain constant region.

C. heavy chain variable region.

D. *heavy chain constant region.

E. Any of the above.

1. Macrophage as antigen presenting cell express which one of the following on their surfaces?

A. IgE

B. Gamma interferon

C. Class I MHC antigens

D. *Class II MHC antigens

E. Class III MHC antigens

1. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by

A. lymphocytes.

B. myeloma cells.

C. *hybridomas.

D. spleen cells.

E. plasma cells.

1. Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all of the following EXCEPT

A. the typing of tissue.

B. the identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms.

C. the identification of tumor antigens.

D. the classification of leukemias.

E. *the manipulation of the immune response.

1. Opsonization refers to

A. parasitic lysosomal degranulation.

B. aglutination of red blood cells.

C. *coating of microorganisms or other particles by antibody and/or complement.

D. adherence to mucosal epithelial cells.

E. antibody mediated viral inactivation.

1. Persons of blood group type AB

A. are Rh(D)-negative

B. *are "universal recipients" of transfusions

C. have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies

D. have the same haplotype

E. are "universal donors" of transfusions

1. Primary lymphoid organ/s are:

A. thymus

B. bursa of Fabricius.

C. bone marrow.

D. *all of the above are correct

E. E all of the above are false

1. Programmed cell death in animal cells is known as:

A. A poptos

B. a poptosis

C. a pop tosis

D. apopstasis

E. *apoptosis

1. Regarding Th-1 and Th-2 cells, which one of the following is LEAST accurate?

A. Th-1 cells produce gamma interferon and promote cell-mediated immunity

B. Th-2 cells produce interleukin-4 and -5 and promote antibody-mediated immunity

C. Both Th-1 and Th-2 cells have both CD3 and CD4 proteins on their outer cell membrane

D. *Before naive Th cells differentiate into Th-1 or Th-2 cells, they are, double- positives; ie, they produce both gamma interferon and intefleukin-4

E. Th-2 cells produce interleukin-10 and inhibit activity of Th-2 cells

1. Secondary lymphoid organ/s is/are:

A. lymph nodes.

B. spleen.

C. mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue.

D. GALT

E. *all of the above

1. Shoose correct answer according the primary immune response

A. *has a longer lag phase.

B. has a more rapid log phase.

C. persists for a longer plateau period.

D. attains a higher IgG titer.

E. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.

1. Show a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection:

A. NK cells

B. unbroken skin

C. cilia in trachea

D. *lysozyme in saliva

E. all of these

1. Show primary lymphoid organ/s:

A. thymus

B. bursa of Fabricius.

C. bone marrow.

D. *all of the above are correct

E. all of the above are false

1. Stem cells arise from:

A. yolk sac.

B. foetal liver.

C. bone marrow.

D. *all of the above.

E. all of the above are wrong

1. TcRs are present in the cell membrane of:

A. all mature null cells

B. all mature lymphocytes

C. *all mature T lymphocytes

D. all mature monocytes

E. all mature K cells

1. Th2 cells are released one of the following substances. Choose it.

A. serotonin

B. gamma interferon

C. *Interleukin-6

D. TNF

E. beta interferon.

1. The antibody-binding site is formed primarily by

A. The constant regions of H and L chains

B. *The hypervariable regions of H and L chains

C. The hypervariable regions of H chains

D. The variable regions of H chains

E. The variable regions of L chains

1. The antigen binding specificity of an antibody is due to:

A. the constant regions of the light chains

B. the variable framework regions of the heavy & light chains

C. the variable regions of the heavy chains

D. *the hypervariable regions of both heavy & light chains

E. the constant regions of the heavy chains

1. The BEST method to demonstrate IgG on'the glomerular basement membrane in a kidney tissue section is the

A. precipitin test

B. complement fixation test

C. agglutination test

D. *indirect fluorescent-antibody test

E. coagglutination test

1. The CD4 glycoprotein is found:

A. on all Tc lymphocytes

B. only on Th1 lymphocytes

C. *on all Th lymphocytes

D. on all NK cells

E. on all B lymphocytes

1. The class of immunoglobulin present in highest concentration in the blood of a human is

A. *IgG

B. IgM

C. IgA

D. IgD

E. IgE

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