Text test questions 3 страница

A. Viruses

B. Viroids

C. Prions

D. Plasmids

E. *Bacteria

251. Which of the following transport mechanisms functions without the requirement for energy?

A. Binding protein-dependent

B. Group transiocation

C. Symport

D. Uniport

E. *Facilitated diffusion

252. Which of the following components is present in gram-positive bacteria but not in gram-negative bacteria?

A. Peptidoglycan

B. Capsule

C. Flagella

D. Pili

E. *Teichoic acid

253. Eubacteria that lack cell walls and do not synthesize the precursors of peptidoglycan are called:

A. Spirochetes

B. Chlamydiae

C. Rickettsiae

D. Bacilli

E. *Mycoplasmas

254. Most microorganisms pathogenic for humans grow best in the laboratory when cultures are incubated at:

A. 15-20°C

B. 20-30°C

C. 38-50°C

D. 50-55°C

E. *30-37°C

255. The synthesis of which of the following cell components is dependent upon a template?

A. Lipopolysaccharide

B. Peptidoglycan

C. Capsular polysaccharide

D. Phospholipids

E. *Deoxyribonucleic acid

256. Mutations in bacteria can occur by which of the following mechanisms?

A. Deletions

B. Insertions

C. Rearrangements

D. Base substitutions

E. *All of the above

257. The form of genetic exchange in which donor DNA is introduced to the recipient by a bacterial virus is:

A. Transformation

B. Conjugation

C. Transfection

D. Horizontal transfer

E. *Transduction

258. The form of genetic exchange in bacteria that is susceptible to the activity of deoxyribonuclease is:

A. Conjugation

B. Transfection

C. Transduction

D. All of the above

E. *Transformation

259. The formation of a mating pair during the process of conjugation in Escherichia coli requires:

A. Lysis of the donor

B. Transfer of both strands of DNA

C. A restriction endonuclease

D. Integration of a transposon

E. *A sex pilus

260. The term virus was first used by

A. Koch

B. van Leewuenhoek

C. Fleming

D. Redi

E. *Pasteur

261. The viral protein coat is also referred to as a(n

A. core

B. cell membrane

C. envelope

D. cell wall

E. *capsid

262. A virion refers to

A. a core

B. an envelope, if present

C. a coat

D. none of the above

E. *all of the above

263. Which of the following is not true?

A. viral nucleic acid can be single-stranded

B. viral nucleic acid can be double-stranded

C. viral genomes can be DNA

D. viral genomes can be RNA

E. *viruses contain DNA and RNA

264. Depending on the virus, projections referred to as spikes may or may not extend from the viral envelope. These spikes are composed of

A. phospholipids

B. carbohydrates

C. glycolipids

D. proteins

E. *glycoproteins

265. Which of the following is the most common polyhedral shape of a virus?

A. bullet-shaped

B. dodecahedral

C. helical

D. complex

E. *icosahedral

266. Viral specificity takes into account all of the following, except

A. the specific receptors on the host cells

B. the availability of appropriate host enzymes

C. the specific attachment structures on the viral capsid or envelope

D. the availability of host organelles for replication

E. *the nature of the viral genome

267. Which of these statements is not true about the retroviridae?

A. they contain two copies of plus-sense RNA

B. they contain a reverse transcriptase

C. they contain an RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

D. ncorporate into the host chromosome

E. *they contain one copy of plus-sense RNA

268. Which virus was the first one to be purposely eradicated from the face of the Earth?

A. chickenpox

B. swinepox

C. cowpox

D. avianpox

E. *smallpox

269. Which of the following is not true about latency?

A. is a universal property of herpes viruses

B. has the ability to remain in host cells for long periods

C. retains the ability to replicate

D. is reactivated as a result of psychological or physical factors

E. *usually remains in nephrons

270. Which of the following types of pathogenic viruses have a segmented genome?

A. plus-sense RNA viruses

B. minus-sense RNA viruses

C. double-stranded RNA viruses

D. genome of paramyxoviruses

E. *genome of orthomyxoviruses

271. Which of the following is not in the proper order for viral replication?

A. adsorption

B. penetration

C. maturation

D. release

E. *biosynthesis

272. If you had a phage suspension in a test tube, which of the following techniques would you use to determine the number of viruses in the tube?

A. spectrophotometric analysis

B. count from electron micrographs

C. light microscopy and a counting chamber

D. most probable number

E. *plaque assay

273. Which of the following is mismatched?

A. cell strain - genetically identical cells subcultured from a primary cell line

B. primary cell cultures - come directly from the animal

C. subculturing - cells from an existing culture are transferred to fresh media

D. continuous cell line - cells that reproduce for an extended number of generations

E. *immortal cell lines - continuous cell lines that contain genetically identical cells

274. Which of the following is not true about viroids?

A. they exist inside of cells without capsids or envelopes

B. they do not require a helper phage

C. their genome is always copied in the host-cell nucleus

D. each consists of a single circular RNA molecule

E. *they produce protein from its genome

275. All viruses have

A. RNA

B. envelopes

C. glycoprotein spikes

D. DNA

E. *capsid

276. Prions:

A. are easily inactivated at 90 degrees centigrade

B. are also called viroids

C. are infectious pieces of RNA

D. is the name given to latent viruses

E. *are infectious particles not destroyed by DNase or RNase

277. Which of the following will not support the growth of viruses?

A. embryonated eggs

B. continuous cell cultures

C. animals

D. primary cell cultures

E. *blood agar

278. What of the influenza-enveloped virus appear to be involved in attachment to the host cell receptor site?

A. Pili

B. Fimbriae

C. Flagellae

D. Neuraminidase

E. *Hemagluttinin

279. Intracellular structures formed during many viral infections are:

A. Procaryotes

B. Chromosomal disruptions

C. Cytocidal bodies

D. All of the above

E. *Inclusion bodies

280. Which of the following is the agent associated with development of neurodegenrative disease in livestock and humans?

A. Viroids

B. virions

C. Virinos

D. Viruses

E. *Prions

281. Virus vaccines are made from:

A. antibiotics

B. human white blood cells.

C. medicines that cure the symptoms of viral diseases.

D. DNA of virus

E. *weakened or dead versions of a dangerous virus.

282. A natural vaccination happens when:

A. a doctor gives a person a measles vaccine.

B. a person catches a cold.

C. after contracting influenza once, a person can contract it again.

D. a doctor gives a person a immunoglobulins.

E. *a person becomes immune to chicken pox after contracting it.

283. A natural vaccination occurs after:

A. immunisation by live vaccine

B. introduction of immunoglobulins

C. introduction of patient serum

D. recovery after measles.

E. *contact with sick man

284. Viruses are spread between people in different ways, including:

A. contact with contaminated blood.

B. insects that transmit infected blood.

C. contact with contaminated saliva or mucus.

D. contact with contaminated vaginal secrets

E. *all of the listed answers.

285. Viruses in the body are destroyed by:

A. red blood cells.

B. vaccines

C. antibodies

D. B cells

E. *white blood cells.

286. Which of the following bacteria is cell wall deficient?

A. Treponema.

B. Slaphylococcus.

C. Klebsiella.

D. Salmonella

E. *Mycoplasma.

287. Which tissue is normally free from colonization by microorganisms (normal flora) because of the effectiveness of the host constitutive defenses?

A. upper respiratory tract (throat, pharynx)

B. upper gastrointestinal tract

C. lower gastrointestinal tract

D. vagina

E. *lower respiratory tract (lungs)

288. The predominant bacteria in the mouth, GI tract (colon), and skin, respectively, are

A. staphylococci, streptococci, and corynebacteria

B. streptococci, E. coli, and staphylococci

C. staphylococci, E. coli, and streptococci

D. neisseriae, enterococci, and clostridia

E. *lactic acid bacteria, Bacteroides, and staphylococci

289. The predominant bacterium in the GI tract of nursing infants. because mother's milk contains a growth factor that enriches for bacterial growth, is

A. Enterococcus faecalis

B. Escherichia coli

C. Bacteroides fragilis

D. Lactobacillus acidophilus

E. *Bifidobacterium bifidum

290. The bacterial product that prevents colonization of the vagina by potentially pathogenic yeasts is

A. bacteriocin

B. peroxide

C. TSST toxin

D. lysozyme

E. *lactic acid

291. Which of the following statements about bacterial endotoxins is true?

A. They usually act at a tissue site in the host that is removed from the site of bacterial growth

B. They typically have an enzymatic (specific) type of activity

C. They can be converted into toxoids.

D. none of the above

E. *They are nonantigenic.

292. Bacterial endotoxins and exotoxins both share this property.

A. They are proteins

B. They are structural components of the bacterial cell wall

C. They have an enzymatic type of activity

D. none of the above

E. *They are toxic to animals.

293. The portion of the bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is responsible for the toxicity of the molecule is

A. lipoteichoic acid

B. O polysaccharide

C. Omp A

D. N-acetylglucosamine (NAG)

E. *lipid A

294. Dark Ground microscopy is used for detection of

A. Chlamydia

B. Fungi

C. Virus

D. Mycoplasmas

E. *Spirochetes

295. The structure of DNA was discovered by:

A. Watson and Griffith

B. Darwin and Crick

C. Pasteur and Koch

D. Baltimore and Flemming

E. *Watson and Crick

296. What mechanism reproduction of bacteria is:

A. by a mitosis

B. by spore formation

C. by sexual way

D. by a disjunctive way

E. *by a simple transversal division

297. The most commonly encountered bacteria are roughly spherical. The microbiological term describing this shape is

A. bacillus

B. pleomorphic

C. vibrio

D. spirochete

E. *coccus

298. What bacteria have the spiral form:

A. staphylococcus

B. streptococcus

C. bacillus

D. clostridium

E. *spirillum

299. Some bacteria are considered pleomorphic. This means

A. they are shaped like bent rods.

B. they have a corkscrew shape.

C. they are not either bacilli or cocci.

D. they are not either vibrio or spirocheteand does not decolorized

E. *they do not have just one shape.

300. Cells that do not have a membrane separating their nuclear material from their cytoplasm are called

A. heterozygous.

B. homozygous.

C. eukaryotic.

D. viruses.

E. *prokaryotic

301. The original distinction between the two types of cells,prokaryotic and eukaryotic, was made on the basis of the

A. structure of the cell wall

B. absence or presence of mitochondria.

C. absence or presence of ribosomes

D. structure of the cell membrane.

E. *absence or presence of a nuclear membrane.

302. Why is a bacterium called a prokaryotic organism?

A. A bacterium is a one-cell organism that has a distinct nucleus.

B. A bacterium is a multicellar organism that does not have a distinct nucleus.

C. A bacterium is a multicellar organism that has a distinct nucleus

D. All anwers are true

E. *A bacterium is a one-cell organism that does not have a distinct nucleus.

303. Which of the following components are not found in the Gram-positive cell wall?

A. peptidoglycan

B. teichoic acid

C. N-acetyl muramic acid

D. amino acids

E. *lipopolysaccharides

304. Choose among these bacteria gram-negative:

A. Staphylococci

B. Streptococci

C. Clostridium botulinum

D. Bacillus anthracis

E. *Meningococci

305. Cell walls, when they exist, usually contain peptidoglycan in

A. eucaryotes only.

B. fungi

C. protozoa

D. both procaryotes and eucaryotes.

E. *procaryotes only.

306. Peptidoglycan is major constituent of cell wall of:

A. gram-negative bacteria

B. fungi.

C. protozoa.

D. none of the above

E. *gram-positive bacteria

307. Lipopolysaccharide is a major constituent of cell wall in:

A. gram-positive bacteria

B. fungi

C. protozoa

D. none of the above

E. *gram-negative bacteria

308. Choose among listed what is correct regarding Gram positive cells

A. have a second, outer membrane that helps retain the crystal violet stain.

B. have a thick capsule that traps the crystal violet stain.

C. have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet.

D. have monolayers of peptidoglycan

E. *have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain.

309. Organ of adhesion of bacteria is

A. Capsule

B. Slime

C. Flagella

D. Spore

E. *Fimbriae

310. What is a plasmid?

A. Self-replicating segment of single stranded RNA

B. A bacterial chromosome

C. Bacterial inclusion

D. Part of the ribosome

E. *Self-replicating segment of double stranded DNA

311. Which of the following is not true about capsules and slime layers?

A. They consist of secreted material lying outside of the bacterial cell wall

B. They can prevent desiccation of bacteria cells

C. They help bacteria resist phagocytosis by macrophages

D. All answers are true

E. *They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture

312. Endospores of bacillus are necessary for:

A. Defence from acid in stomach

B. Reproduction

C. Defence from fagocytosis

D. Survival into human and animal’s organism

E. *Survival in an external environment

313. When bacteria have cluster of flagella at one or both sides, the arrangement is known as:

A. monotrichous.

B. amphitrichous.

C. peritrichous.

D. bitrichous

E. *lophotrichous.

314. When flagella are distributed on both sides of the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as:

A. monotrichous.

B. lophotrichous.

C. peritrichous.

D. bitrichous

E. *amphitrichous.

315. What is the value of a wet-mount preparation?

A. For study cultural properties of bacteria

B. For study morphology of bacteria

C. For examinate biochemical properties

D. For study sensitivity to antibiotics

E. *For study motility of bacteria

316. What color does Mycobacterium tuberculosis have after staining by Ziehl-Neelsen technique?

A. yellow

B. blue

C. violet

D. brown

E. *red

317. Acid fast microbes are resistante to acid because they contain in cell wall:

A. lipopolysaccharides

B. acetylglucosamine

C. diaminopimelic acid

D. polyphosphates

E. *waxes, fatty acid

318. All are acid fast except

A. Nocardia

B. Bacterial spores

C. M. leprae

D. M. tuberculosis

E. *Mycoplasma

319. In depending on the source of carbon such groups of bacteria are:

A. lithotrophs and organotrophs

B. chemotrophs and phototrophs

C. chemotrophs and heterotrophs

D. autotrophs and chemotrophs

E. *autotrophs and heterotrophs

320. Microorganisms, which are able to cause diseases in human, belong to:

A. chmemorganoautotrophs

B. chemolithoheterotrophs

C. chemolithoautotrophs

D. heterophotoorganotrophs

E. *chemoorganoheterotrophs

321. Temperature optimum for mesophilic bacteria is:

A. 10-15 1 C

B. 20-30 2C

C. 40-50 4C

D. 50-60 5C

E. *30-37 3С

322. Temperature optimum for thermophilic bacteria is:

A. 10-20 1C

B. 20-30 2C

C. 30-37 С3

D. 40-50 4C

E. *50-60 5C

323. Microorganisms that require the high concentrations of salts for their cultivation are called:

A. Acidophilic

B. Oxyphilic

C. Mesophilic

D. Osmiephilic

E. *Halophilic

324. Enzymes that are produced outside from bacteria are called:

A. endoenzymes

B. heteroenzymes

C. isoenzymes

D. all answers are correct

E. *exoenzymes

325. What from the listed words is a name of enzyme?

A. Saccharose

B. Glucose

C. Maltose

D. Galactose

E. *Saccharase

326. What microorganisms can produce such enzymes, as fibrinolysin, streptodornase, streptokinase, which are used for patients’ treatment?

A. Staphylococci

B. Neisseria

C. Branchamella

D. Gemella

E. *Streptococci

327. What enzymes localized in cytoplasm membrane do provide the facilitated diffusion?

A. transferases

B. proteases

C. hydrolases

D. ligases

E. *permeases

328. What color do lactose-negative colony of bacteria on Ploskirev’s medium have?

A. dark blue

B. rose

C. brown

D. green

E. *colorless

329. It is necessary to check the peptolytic properties of bacteria. What nutrient medium will you recommend?

A. MPA

B. Endo’s medium

C. Roux’s medium

D. 1 % alkaline peptone water

E. *MPB

330. Sterilization may be conducted by the following methods:

A. action of moist steam

B. filtration

C. radiation

D. pasteurization

E. *all answers are correct

331. Choose a correct answer according to the types of microbial decontamination:

A. sterilization

B. disinfections

C. antiseptics

D. all answer are wrong

E. *all answer are right

332. Choose capneic bacteria:

A. Shigella dysentery

B. Clostridium botulinum

C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

E. *Brucella abortus

333. Indicate the capneic bacteria:

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

C. Lactobacillus spp.

D. Clostridium perfringens

E. *Brucella abortus

334. What microbes do belong to facultative anaerobes?

A. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium perfringens

B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Vibrio cholerae

C. Brucella abortus

D. Lactobacillus acidophilus

335. Match the organism with its usual colonizing site - Coagulase negative Staphylococcus

A. Intestine

B. Vagina

C. Mouth

D. Conjuctiva

E. *Skin

336. Match the organism with its usual colonizing site -Lactobacillus spp

A. Intestine

B. Skin

C. Mouth

D. Conjuctiva

E. *vagina

337. Match the organism with its usual colonizing site -Enterococcus faecalis

A. Skin

B. Vagina

C. Mouth

D. Conjuctiva

E. *Intestine

338. Which one of the following body sites is not usually bacteriologically 'sterile'?

A. Endometrial cavity of uterus

B. Pulmonary alveoli

C. Bladder

D. Meninges

E. *Duodenum

339. Choose the best match for the mechanisms controlling normal flora in the stomach:

A. Mucociliary action

B. Peristalsis

C. Antibody to normal flora

D. mucus

E. *low pH

340. Choose the best match for the mechanisms controlling normal flora in the Lower respiratory tract:

A. low pH

B. Peristalsis

C. Antibody to normal flora

D. All are true

E. *Mucociliary action

341. Choose the best match for the mechanisms controlling normal flora in the vagina, during reproductive years:

A. Mucociliary action

B. Peristalsis

C. Antibodies to normal flora

D. All are true

E. *low pH

342. Which tissue in a human is free from colonization by microbes (normal flora) because the organisms lack normal access to the tissue?

A. colon

B. stomach

C. lower respiratory tract

D. urinary tract (urethra)

E. *blood (vascular system)

343. The most important benefit that the human gastrointestinal flora provide for their host is

A. digestion of dietary cellulose

B. production of endotoxin that produces toxemia

C. production of dietary protein

D. production of antibodies

E. *antagonism against colonization by potential pathogens

344. Which one of the following microorganisms is closely associated with dental caries?

A. Candida albicans

B. Prevotella melaninogenica

C. Neisseria subflava

D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

E. *Streptococcus mutans

345. Streptococcus pneumoniae can be part of the normal flora of 5-40% of people. At what anatomic site can it be found7

A. Conjunctiva

B. Colon

C. Urethra

D. Vagina

E. *Nasopharynx

346. Which of the following areas of the body do not have a resident microbial flora?

A. upper respiratory tract

B. eyes

C. ear

D. skin

E. *bladder

347. Agent which on addition to a colony inhibits its growth and on removal the colony regrows is

A. Bactericidal

B. Antibiotic

C. Antiseptic

D. Antifungal

E. *Bacteriostatic

348. A condition in which bacteria circulate in blood without multiplication is known as:

A. septicaemia.

B. pyaemia.

C. endotoxaemia.

D. viraemia

E. *bacteraemia.

349. A condition in which toxin circulate in blood is known as:

A. bacteraemia.

B. septicaemia.

C. pyaemia.

D. viraemia

E. *toxaemia.

350. Septicemia is:

A. bacteria in blood

B. Toxin in blood

C. Pus in blood

D. viruses in the blood

E. *Multiplication of bacteria and toxins in blood

351. Interferon action is:

A. to disrupt cytoplasmic membranes

B. to protect primary infected cells

C. found in high levels in phagocytic granules

D. kill cells infected by viruses

E. *primarily antiviral

352. Which of the following substances has antiviral activity?

A. collagenase

B. complement

C. lysozyme

D. lysosome

E. *interferon

353. Natural killer cells are involved in:

A. allograft rejection.

B. tumour rejection.

C. non-specific killing of virus transformed target cells.

D. type II of allergy

E. *all of the above.

354. A T helper lymphocyte recognizes an antigen presented by an antigen-presenting-cell (APC) if the antigen is associated with:

A. HLA class I antigen.

B. Surface immunoglobulin.

C. CD 8 antigen.

D. All of the above.

E. *HLA class II antigen.

355. T-killer cells are important in controlling

A. allergy

B. autoimmunity

C. antibodies synthesis

D. all of these

E. *virus infections

356. The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of Cl with

A. antigen

B. factor B

C. bacterial lipopolysaccharides

D. E factor D and I

E. *antigen-IgG complexes

357. Complement binding immunoglobin via the classical pathway is

A. IgG and IgA

B. IgG and IgD

C. IgD and IgE

D. IgM and IgE

E. *IgG and IgM

358. An example of a nonspecific chemical barrier to infection is:

A. NK cells

B. unbroken skin

C. cilia in trachea

D. all of these

E. *lysozyme in saliva

359. Why does lysozyme destroy bacteria cells?

A. because inhibits protein synthesis

B. because activates lysosome’s enzymes

C. because inhibits mRNA

D. because stimulates proteolytic enzymes

E. *because attacks of peptidoglycan

360. Which of the following pairs is mismatched

A. vagina --- lactobacilli

B. eye --- lysozyme

C. oropharynx --- anaerobes

D. mucus --- lactoferrin

E. *skin --- Gram negative

361. Which nonspecific host defense is associated with the trachea?

A. lacrimation

B. desquamation

C. lactic acid

D. macrophages

E. *ciliary lining

362. Humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection is

A. NK cells

B. unbroken skin

C. cilia in trachea

D. all of these

E. *lysozyme in saliva

363. T cells mature in:

A. peyers patch

B. lymph node

C. bursa of fabricius

D. bone marrow

E. *thymus

364. An immunoglobulin is a(n)

A. histamme

B. antigen

C. macrophage

D. carbohydrate

E. *antibody

365. Antibody-secreting cells are called:

A. T cell blasts

B. macrophages

C. B lymphoblasts

D. pre-B lymphocytes

E. *plasma cells

366. Choose antibody production cells

A. T cells.

B. B cells

C. T helpers

D. Macrophages

E. *Plasma cells

367. Plasma cells are

A. mature T cells.

B. immature macrophages

C. mature macrophages.

D. immature T cells.

E. *antibody-producing cells.

368. Which lymphocytes have CD8 surface antigen on their surface:

A. helper Т cells.

B. NK cells

C. all of these

D. none of of these.

E. *cytotoxic Т cells.

369. Complement lyses cells by

A. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane

B. activation of adenylate cyclase

C. inhibition of elongation factor 2

D. production of lysozyme

E. *insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane

370. Clinical infection leads to:

A. active artificial immunity.

B. passive natural immunity.

C. passive artificial immunity.

D. inate

E. *active natural immunity.

371. Match the types of immunity after vaccination:

A. Innate

B. naturally acquired active

C. naturally acquired passive

D. artificially acquired passive

E. *artificially acquired active

372. Match the types of immunity after recovery from disease:

A. innate

B. naturally acquired passive

C. artificially acquired active

D. artificially acquired passive

E. *naturally acquired active

373. Match the types of immunity after administration antitoxic serum:

A. innate

B. naturally acquired active

C. naturally acquired passive

D. artificially acquired active

E. *artificially acquired passive

374. Match the types of immunity after transfer of immunity from mother to fetus:

A. innate

B. naturally acquired active

C. artificially acquired active

D. artificially acquired passive

E. *naturally acquired passive

375. Match the types of immunity of humans to cat and dog distemper:

A. naturally acquired active

B. naturally acquired passive

C. artificially acquired active

D. artificially acquired passive

E. *innate

376. Which is an example of type III hypersensitivity

A. contact dermatitis

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