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Module 1 General microbiology
1. Which of the following vaccines are prepared from live microbes?
A. diphtheria vaccine
B. Solk polio vaccine.
C. Influenza vaccine
D. DPT
E. *BCG and oral polio vaccines
2. Which part of the immunoglobulin binds with the antigen?
A. Fc fragment
B. H chains
C. L chains
D. constant parts of the H and L chains
E. *variable parts of the H and L chains
3. Which part of the antibody can binds antigenic determinants of the antigen?
A. H chains
B. Hinge
C. Fc fragment
D. L chains
E. *Fab fragments
4. Which of the following classes of immunoglobulins can cross the placenta?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
E. *IgG
5. What classes of immunoglobilins contain J chain?
A. IgG and IgE
B. IgA and IgG
C. IgG and IgM
D. IgM and IgE
E. *IgM and IgA
6. Which of the following classes of immunoglobulins can transfer from mother to child?
A. IgM
B. IgE
C. IgD
D. IgA
E. *IgG
7. Which of the following classes of antibodies does fetus obtain from mother?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
E. *IgG
8. Choose among the listed immunoglobulins that contain secretory component:
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG1
D. IgE
E. *sIgA
9. Choose antibody production cells:
A. T cells
B. B cells
C. T helpers
D. Macrophages
E. *Plasma cells
10. All Antigen-presenting cells contain?
A. IgM
B. TNF
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. Gamma interferon
E. *Class II MHC antigens
11. Which of the following are antigen presenting cells?
A. NK cells and mast cels
B. Th and Tk
C. Plasma cells
D. Cytotoxic cells and nurse cells
E. *Macrophages and B cells
12. Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh incompatibility?
A. Atopic or anaphylactic
B. Autoimmune
C. Delayed
D. Immune complex
E. *Cytotoxic
13. The role of the macrophage during an antibody response is to:
A. make antibody
B. lyse virus-infected target cells
C. activate cytotoxic T cells.
D. produce interleukins
E. *process antigen and present it
14. Choose secondary immunodeficiency:
A. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
B. Ataxia-telangiectasia
C. Chronic granulomatous disease
D. Burtone disease
E. *AIDS
15. A lymphokine that stimulates the activity of B and T cells is:
A. interleukin-2
B. gamma interferon
C. TNF
D. lymphotoxin
E. *interleukin-1
16. The classic complement pathway is initiated by interaction of Cl with:
A. antigen
B. factor B
C. bacterial lipopolysaccharides
D. endotoxin
E. *antigen-IgG complexes
17. Choose of the following T cells which assist in the functions of certain B cells and other T cells are:
A. Sensitized
B. Cytotoxic
C. Natural killer
D. T killer
E. *Helper
18. The classic complement pathway occurs when complement binds with:
A. factor B
B. antigen-IgA complexes
C. bacterial capsula
D. endotoxin
E. *antigen-antibody complex
19. Natural killer cells are:
A. B cells that can kill bacteria without complement
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. increased by immunization
D. able to kill virus-infected cells without prior sensitization
E. *very importent in antiviral and antitumor immunity
20. T cells that activate B cells and other T cells are?
A. Cytotoxic
B. Sensitized
C. T killer
D. T-effector
E. *Helper
21. Cytotoxic cells (NK) are:
A. B cells
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells by lymphotoxin production
D. macrophages.
E. *able to kill virus-infected cells and tumor cells without prior sensitization
22. An antigen is:
A. a hapten that combines with an antibody
B. a small molecule that attaches to cells.
C. a carbohydrate
D. a protein that combines with antibodies
E. *a substance that incites an antibody respons and can combine specifically with these antibodies.
23. Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th1 cells?
A. Alpha interferon
B. Interleukin-5
C. Interleukin-6
D. bradikidin
E. *Gamma interferon
24. B lymphocytes originate in:
A. adult bone marrow and limph nodes
B. fetal liver
C. thymus
D. lymph nodes
E. *fetal liver and borne marrow
25. Which one of the following substances is released by activated helper Th2 cells?
A. б interferon
B. в interferon
C. TNF
D. serotonin
E. *Interleukin-6
26. Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their surfaces:
A. IgE
B. Gamma interferon
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. IgM
E. *Class II MHC antigens
27. The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of:
A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle
B. the allergen on B lymphocytes
C. lgE on smooth muscle
D. lymphotoxin on mast cells
E. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils
28. Antigen-presenting cells must express on their surfaces:
A. IgM
B. IgE
C. Class I MHC antigens
D. Gamma interferon
E. *Class II MHC antigens
29. The first, direct symptoms of anaphylaxis are associated with action of:
A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle
B. the allergen on B lymphocytes
C. lymphotoxin on mast cells
D. lgE on smooth muscle
E. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils
30. Complement lyses cells by:
A. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane
B. activation of adenylate cyclase
C. inhibition of elongation factor 2
D. enzymatic digestion of LPS
E. *insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane
31. A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of:
A. autoimmunity
B. eczema
C. acute contact dermatitis
D. immune-complex reaction
E. *delayed-type allergy
32. Complement kills different cells by:
A. activation of adenylate cyclase
B. enzymatic digestion of the cell membrane
C. apoptosis mechanism
D. inhibition of elongation factor 2
E. *insertion of complement proteins into the cell membrane
33. Complex of antigen with IgE attached to mast cells and then causes:
A. precipitation
B. complement fixation
C. agglutination
D. lysis
E. *degranulation
34. After formation of IgE-allergen complex on the surface of the mast cells occur:
A. precipitation
B. complement fixation
C. agglutination
D. toxin production.
E. *degranulation
35. Cell wall is lacking in:
A. Actinomyces
B. Corynebacterium
C. Brucella
D. Spirocheates
E. *Mycoplasma
36. A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hypersensitivity reaction) indicates that:
A. a humoral immune response has occurred
B. both the T and B cell systems are functional
C. only the B cell system is functional
D. B cells are activated
E. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred
37. Cell wall is absent in:
A. Actinomyces
B. Brucella
C. Corynebacterium
D. Spirocheates
E. *Mycoplasma
38. A patient with a central nervous system disorder is maintained on the drug methyldopa; Hemolytic anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST probably an example of:
A. atopic hypersensitivity
B. immune-complex hypersensitivity
C. cell-mediated hypersensitivity
D. delayed-type hypersensitivity
E. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity
39. Hemolytic anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST probably an example of:
A. autoimmune diseases
B. cell-mediated hypersensitivity
C. immune-complex hypersensitivity
D. atopic hypersensitivity
E. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity
40. In the bacteriological method of infection disease diagnosis a serological identification has great importance. What does mean serological identification? Choose the true answer.
A. Examination of a kind of bacteria on biochemical properties
B. Examination of ability to decompose the curtailed serum
C. Examination of a kind of bacteria on ability to reduce the certain dyes
D. Examination of genome structure of bacteria's nucleoid
E. *Examination of antigenic structure of bacteria
41. What is serological identification?
A. Examination of morphological properties
B. Examination of reducing properties
C. Examination of biochemical properties
D. Examination of tinctorial properties
E. *Examination of antigenic properties
42. Humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection is:
A. NK cells
B. unbroken skin
C. cilia in trachea
D. all of these
E. *lysozyme in saliva
43. Choose among the following humoral factor of a nonspecific resistance to infection:
A. macrophages
B. unbroken skin
C. cilia in intestine
D. Hydrochloric acid of stomach
E. *complement
44. What is the value of a hanging-drop preparation?
A. For study sensitivity to antibiotics
B. For examinate biochemical properties
C. For study morphology of bacteria
D. For study cultural properties of bacteria
E. *For study motility of bacteria
45. Monocytes are leukocytes that develop into:
A. agranular, macrophages
B. agrunular, mast cells
C. granular, T cells
D. granular, B cells
E. *granular, phagocytes
46. Macrophages are leucocytes that develop from:
A. thymocytes
B. mast cells
C. T cells
D. B cells
E. *monocytes
47. Which of the following is the end product of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. membrane attack complex
C. cascade reaction
D. complement factor C1
E. *complement factor C9
48. What does mean the term colonial morphology?
A. Ability of microorganisms to colonize some tissues
B. Structure of bacteria inside the colony
C. Ability of microorganisms grow separatly
D. Characteristics by which bacterial colonies may be distinguished.
E. *A visible aggregate of bacteria
49. Why can a single colony on a plate be used to start a pure culture?
A. because it contains a large number of microbes
B. because colony contains different kinds of bacteria
C. because only colony can grow onto solid nutrients media
D. because colonies of different bacteria are similar
E. *because colony represents the growth of one bacterial species
50. Which of the following is the end product of the activation of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. cascade reaction
C. complement factor C1
D. complement factor C5
E. *membrane attack complex
51. Choose the nutrient medium for obtaining the separate colonies:
A. Meat-pepton broth
B. Sugar broth
C. Kitt-Tarozzi medium
D. Alkaline pepton water
E. *Meat-pepton agar
52. Choose among listed nutrient media for study of proteolytic properties of bacteria:
A. Meat - pepton agar
B. Sugar agar
C. YSA
D. Blood agar
E. *The curtailed serum
53. Which of the following is the first product of the classic pathway of activation of the complement system?
A. properdin
B. membrane attack complex
C. complement factor C4
D. complement factor C5
E. *C1q, C1r, C1s complex
54. The pure culture of anaerobic microorganisms can be obtained by ____
A. Fortner's method
B. Shukevich's method
C. Paster's method
D. Loeffler's method
E. *Veinberg's method
55. Choose among the following the convertase of classic pathway of activation of the complement system?
A. C4b2a5b
B. membrane attack complex
C. C1q, C1r, C1s complex
D. C3bBb
E. *C4b2a
56. We can obtain pure culture of anaerobic microorganisms by __:
A. Fortner's method
B. Shukevich's method
C. Paster's method
D. Loeffler's method
E. *Veinberg's method
57. Choose among the listed microorganisms obligate aerobes.
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulinum
C. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
D. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcacae
58. Which of the following is the convertase of alternative pathway of activation of the complement system?
A. C4b2a5b
B. C1q, C1r, C1s complex
C. C4b2a
D. membrane attack complex
E. *C3bBb
59. Choose among these bacteria obligate aerobes.
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
C. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
D. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini
E. *Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcacae
60. Choose among these bacteria obligate anaerobes.
A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Micrococcacae
C. Bacillus anthracis, Brucella melitensis
D. Shigella dysenteriae, Salmonella typhi
E. *Clostridium tetani, Clostridium botulini
61. Immunological memory refers to the ability of the immune system to:
A. recognize millions of different antigens
B. migrate from the blood vessels into the tissues
C. react with millions of different antigens
D. activate T cells
E. *recall a previous immune response
62. The second stage of obtaining of pure culture of aerobes will be:
A. Inoculating of a mix (material) on a solid nutrient medium
B. Check of cleanliness of the pure culture and its identification
C. Biochemical and serological identification
D. Microscopic examination of a material
E. *Studying of isolated colonies and inoculating on the slant agar
63. Immunological memory develops after:
A. injection of antibodies
B. activation of NK cells
C. stimulation of macrophages
D. activation of T cells
E. *injection of the antigen
64. The third stage of obtaining of pure culture of aerobes is ____
A. Inoculating of a mix (material) on a solid nutrient medium
B. Biochemical and serological identification
C. Studying of isolated colonies and inoculating on the slant agar
D. Microscopic examination of a material
E. *Check of cleanliness of the pure culture and its identification
65. Т killer cells are important in controlling of ___:
A. allergy
B. autoimmunity
C. production of antibodies
D. all of these
E. *virus infections
66. T killers can kill all infected cells, which contain:
A. MHC II class antigens
B. receptors to Fc fragment of antibody
C. receptors to C3b component of complement
D. all of these
E. *MHC I class antigens
67. What’s next step of staining by Ziehl-Neelsen’s method after using sulphuric acid?
A. Staining by ziehl’s phenol fuchsine
B. Using alcohol
C. Staining by mеthylene blue
D. Using iodine solution
E. *Washing with water
68. Spores are necessary to bacteria for:
A. Survival into human and animal’s organism
B. Reproduction
C. Defence from fagocytosis
D. Defence from acid in stomack
E. *Survival in an external environment
69. Vaccination is synonymous with immunity.
A. natural active
B. artificial passive
C. natural passive
D. antitoxic passive
E. *artificial active
70. Endospores are necessary to bacteria for:
A. Defence from acid in stomack
B. Reproduction
C. Defence from fagocytosis
D. Survival into human and animal’s organism
E. *Survival in an external environment
71. T cells are responsible for which type of allergy?
A. asthma
B. anaphylaxis
C. atopy
D. cytotonic
E. *delay hypersensitivity
72. Endospores of bacillus are necessary to bacteria for:
A. Survival into human and animal’s organism
B. Reproduction
C. Defence from fagocytosis
D. Defence from acid in stomack
E. *Survival in an external environment
73. Anaerobic conditions can be created with using:
A. Zoessler's method
B. Shukevich's method
C. Veinberg's method
D. Paster's method
E. *Fortner's method
74. Antibodies take part in all types of hypersensitivity, except?
A. cytotoxic reactions
B. anaphylaxis
C. immune-complex rection
D. atopy reaction
E. *tuberculin reactions
75. Choose method of creating of anaerobic conditions:
A. Koch’s method
B. Loeffler’s method
C. Shukevich's method
D. Shukevich's method
E. *Fortner's method
76. An example of a type III immune complex disease is:
A. graft rejection
B. contact dermatitis
C. atopy
D. asthma
E. *serum sickness
77. Choose method of obtaining pure culture of anaerobic bacteria:
A. Shukevich's method
B. Koch’s method
C. Fortner's method
D. Paster's method
E. *Zoessler's method
78. Choose the nutrients media on which it is possible to cultivate anaerobic microorganisms:
A. Meat - pepton agar, meat - pepton broth
B. The curtailed serum, meat-pepton gelatin
C. Blood agar, serum agar
D. Endo's and Lewin's media
E. *Zoessler's sugar - blood agar, Kitt-Tarozzi's medium
79. Choose among the following immune-complex disease:
A. asthma
B. atopy
C. contact dermatitis
D. graft rejection
E. *serum sickness
80. Specify the nutrients media on which it is possible to cultivate anaerobic microorganisms:
A. Meat - pepton agar, meat - pepton broth
B. medium Endo's and Lewin's media
C. The curtailed serum, meat- pepton gelatin
D. Blood agar, serum agar
E. *Zoessler's, Kitt-Tarozzi's media
81. Which of the following is immune-complex disease:
A. graft rejection
B. contact dermatitis
C. atopy
D. asthma
E. *serum sickness
82. Peptolytic properties of bacteria we can study by detection in tubes:
A. Carbonic acids and waters
B. Glucose and lactoses
C. Carbonic acids and nitrogen
D. Mannitol and metanol
E. *Indol and hydrogen sulphide
83. For obtaining separated colony of anaerobic microorganisms we use one of next nutrient media:
A. Kitt-Tarozzi's medium
B. Hiss media
C. Endo's medium
D. Ploskirev medium
E. *Sugar - blood Zoessler's agar
84. The third stage of selecting of pure culture of aerobic microorganisms is:
A. Inoculating of a mix (material) on a solid nutrient medium
B. Microscopic examination of a material
C. Microscopy of smear
D. Studying of isolated colonies and Inoculating on the slant agar
E. *Biochemical and serological identification
85. Which of the following nonspecific substances is a normal component of serum?
A. lysozyme
B. interferon
C. collagenase
D. lysosome
E. *complement
86. Resistance of bacteria to acid depends from present in cytoplasm:
A. lipopolysaccharides
B. acetylglucosamine
C. diaminopimelic acid
D. polyphosphates
E. *fatty waxes, fatty acid
87. Which of the following normal component of serum has antiviral activity?
A. complement
B. collagenase
C. lysozyme
D. lysosome
E. *interferon
88. Cell wall of gram-positive bacteria consist of:
A. thin monolayer peptidoglycan
B. lipoproteins
C. lipopolysaccharides
D. outer membrane
E. *polilayer peptidoglycan
89. Cell wall of gram-negative bacteria contains all of following, except:
A. thin monolayer peptidоglycan
B. lipoproteins
C. lipopolysaccharides
D. outer membrane
E. *polilayer peptidoglycan
90. Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an:
A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus.
B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus
C. AB mother carries an 0 fetus.
D. Two of the above are correct.
E. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus
91. Which of the following substances can damage bacterial cell wall:
A. sulphonamides
B. interferone
C. alcohol
D. streptomycin
E. *lysozyme
92. Choose among the listed when hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs:
A. Rh-positive mother carries an Rh-negative fetus.
B. 0 mother carries an AB fetus
C. AB mother an 0 fetus.
D. B mother carries an Rh-positive fetus
E. *Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus.
93. Lysozyme can damage bacteria cell because bacteria contain:
A. outer membrane
B. lipopolysaccharides
C. lipoproteins
D. carbohydrates
E. *peptidoglycan
94. Which property does mycoplasma differ from bacteria:
A. by structure of the nucleoid
B. by intracellular parasite
C. by tinctorial properties
D. by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane
E. *by absence of cell wall
95. Which of the following are reservoirs for human infections.
A. food and water
B. humans
C. animals
D. All of the above are reservoirs for human infections
E. *Only b and c are reservoirs
96. Mycoplasma differ from bacteria:
A. by structure of the nucleoid
B. by toxin production
C. by tinctorial properties
D. by structure of cytoplasmatic membrane
E. *by absence of cell wall
97. Which concentration of ethyl alcohol would is the most effective disinfectant?
A. 100%
B. 60%
C. 50%
D. 30%
E. *70%
98. Plasma cells are:
A. mature T cells.
B. immature macrophages
C. mature macrophages.
D. immature T cells.
E. *antibody-producing cells.
99. At the classic complement pathway Cl must bind with:
A. antigen-IgA complexes
B. hapten
C. red blood cells
D. bacteria
E. *antigen-IgG complexes
100. Choose among the listed cells plasma cells:
A. immature macrophages.
B. mature T cells.
C. immature T cells.
D. vmature macrophages.
E. *antibody-producing cells
101. Which one of the following is true regarding the alternative complement pathway?
A. It can be triggered by infectious agents in presence of antibodies
B. It requires C1,C2, or C4
C. C4b2a presents
D. components B and properdin are not necessery
E. *C3bBb presents
102. Which of the following molecules would be the best antigens?
A. glucose
B. fatty acids
C. sugars
D. lipide
E. *proteins
103. Choose among the listed substances the antigen:
A. sugars
B. fatty acids
C. glucose
D. lipids
E. *proteins
104. Which one of the following is NOT true regarding the alternative complement pathway?
A. It can be triggered by infectious agents in absence of antibody
B. It does not require C1,C2, or C4
C. It has the same terminal sequence of events as the classic pathway
D. C3bBb presents
E. *It cannot be initialed unless C3b fragments are already present
105. Which of the following antibodies can pass through the placenta?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgD
E. *IgG
106. Hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh blood group incompatibility requires maternal antibody to enter the fetal bloodstream. Therefore, the mediator of this disease is:
A. IgA antibody
B. SIgA antibody
C. IgE antibody
D. IgM antibody
E. *IgG antibody
107. Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid tissue?
A. spleen
B. lymph nodes
C. GALT
D. tonsil gland
E. *thyroid gland
108. All of the following are organs of immune system, except:
A. GALT
B. spleen
C. lymph nodes
D. tonsil gland
E. *thyroid gland
109. Choose among the listed central organs of immune system:
A. GALT, spleen
B. lymph nodes, thymus,
C. thyroid gland, tonsil gland
D. bone narrow, spleenbone narrow
E. *thymus, bone marrow
110. Which type of cells actually secretes antibodies?
A. T cells
B. macrophages
C. monocytes
D. NK cells
E. *plasma cells
111. The greatest concentration of antibodies is found in the fraction of the serum is:
A. albumin
B. alpha globulin
C. beta globulin
D. crioglobuline
E. *gamma globulin
112. Antibodies are found in one of next fraction of the serum:
A. crioglobuline
B. beta globulin
C. alpha globulin
D. albumin
E. *gamma globulin
113. Where active center of antibody is located?
A. in Fc part of antibody
B. in H chains
C. between constant part of the H and L chains
D. in L chains
E. *between variable parts of the H and L chains
114. If we don’t detect in child B cells, this immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in:
A. the thymus
B. stem cells originating in the bone marrow
C. T cell-B cell interaction
D. phagocytosis
E. *the bursal equivalent
115. Which of the following classes of immunoglobulins are described as secretory?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE
E. *IgA
116. Choose among the listed secretory immunoglobulins:
A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgD
E. *IgA
117. If we don’t detect in child T cells, this immunodeficiency is most probably the result of a defect in:
A. stem cells originating in the bone marrow
B. T cell-B cell interaction
C. phagocytosis
D. the bursal equivalent
E. *the thymus
118. The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that:
A. it can be administered orally
B. antibody persists for a longer period
C. it contains primarily IgM
D. it contains primarily IgG
E. *it provides antibody more rapidly
119. Which type of hypersensitivities is T-cell mediated?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type VI
E. *type IV
120. Type II hypersensitivities are due to:
A. IgE reacting with mast cells
B. IgG-allergen complexes that clog epithelial tissues
C. activation of cytotoxic T cells
D. activation of NK
E. *complement-induced lysis of cells in the presence of antibodies
121. Endotoxins have such properties:
A. are found in both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria.
B. are part of the Gram-positive cell wall only.
C. are heat labile.
D. are proteins.
E. *all have the same effect,
122. What does Kingdom Prokaryotae include:
A. protozoa.
B. fungi
C. viruses
D. all of the above.
E. *bacteria
123. Choose among listed where peptidoglycan is major constituent of cell wall:
A. gram-negative bacteria.
B. fungi
C. protozoa
D. none of the above.
E. *gram-positive bacteria.
124. Choose among listed where lipopolysaccharide is a major constituent of cell wall:
A. gram-positive bacteria.
B. fungi
C. protozoa
D. none of the above
E. *gram-negative bacteria.
125. Sterols are present in the cytoplasmic membrane of:
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