Text test questions 10 страница

B. C + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ Ag

C. Ag + patient's serum + EA/wait/+ C

D. *Ag + patient's serum + C/wait/+ EA

E. patient's serum + EA +C/wait

1. In the structure of viruses antigens can be represented by all, EXCEPT FOR:

A. Capsid’s proteins

B. Internal proteins

C. Nucleoproteins

D. *Nucleic acid

E. Glycoproteins of supercapsid

1. In virology neutralization test be used for virus identification. Specify, the sequence of bringing in its components (virus- V, patient’s serum - PS., specific serum - SS., cell culture – CC).

A. SS + V to expect > CC

B. CC + V to expect > SS

C. *V + SS to expect >CC

D. SS + CC to expect >V

E. CC + PS to expect >V

1. In which cases can we use CFT at examination of patient’s serum?

A. an estimation of the immune status

B. *serological diagnosis of infectious diseases

C. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency

D. serological identification of microorganisms

E. definition of group of blood

1. In which cases precipitation test is used (correct all,except):

A. in diagnostics of Anthrax

B. for definition toxigenity of diphtheritic cultures

C. *for definition of groups of blood

D. In forensic medicine

E. for definition of class Ig

1. In wich of the following test inert particles are sensitized with either antigen or antibody?

A. Coagglutination (COA)

B. *Latex agglutination (LA)

C. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

D. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)

E. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)

1. indicator system of CFT contains:

A. complement+hemolysin

B. *red cells and hemolysin

C. patient’s serum

D. red blood cells of I (0) groups and hemolysin

E. specific antigen

1. Individuals with a genetic deficiency of C6 have

A. decreased resistance to viral infections

B. increased hypcrsensitivity reactions

C. increased frequency of cancer

D. *decreased resistance to Neisseria bacteremia

E. all answers are true

1. Isoantigens are possessed by:

A. Antigens which all of representatives of this kind have.

B. *Antigens whichare possessed by some representatives of this kind.

C. Antigens which are possessed by all of representatives of different kinds.

D. Antigens which are possessed by some representatives of different kinds.

E. Antigens which are possessed by a certain person.

1. Kinds of agglutination tests(everything is true, except):

A. detailed

B. indirect hemagglutination

C. *precipitation

D. on glass-slide

E. coagglutination

1. Mechanism of precipitation test:

A. hydrophobic interactions

B. *connection of the active centers of antibodies and determinant groups of antigenes

C. Van-Der Waalse interactions

D. Brown movement

E. electrostatic interaction

1. Name the secondary immunodeficiency

A. DiGeorge's syndrome

B. *AIDS

C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

D. Ataxia-telangiectasia

E. Chronic granulomatous disease

1. Negative result of indirect hemagglutination test looks like:

A. *sediment of red cells as a "button"

B. flocculation

C. luminescence

D. sediment of red cells as a "umbrella"

E. sediment of red cells in the test tube

1. Negative result of slide-agglutination looks like:

A. sediment

B. discoloration

C. *even dimness

D. flocculation

E. gasification

1. Neutralization test be used for virus identification. Specify, the sequence of bringing in its components (virus- V, patient’s serum - PS., specific serum - SS., cell culture – CC).

A. SS + V to expect > CC

B. CC + V to expect > SS

C. *V + SS to expect >CC

D. SS + CC to expect >V

E. CC + PS to expect >V

1. One of the disadvantages of ring precipitation test is:

A. Performing the test in a liquid environment

B. use of transparent antigens

C. *impossibility to set the amount of different antigens

D. the colloid particles of protein take part in the reaction

E. all of above are incorrect

1. One of variants of indirect agglutination which is widely used for the diagnostics of bacterial meningitis of different etiology, hepatitis, etc is latex-agglutination test. What can detect by this test?

A. antibodies in the blood serum, urine

B. autoantibodies in serum

C. *bacterial, viral antigens in a serum, urine, CSF.

D. incomplete antibodies in serum

E. incomplete antibodies on red blood cells

1. Opsonization refers to

A. parasitic lysosomal degranulation.

B. aglutination of red blood cells.

C. *coating of microorganisms or other particles by antibody and/or complement.

D. adherence to mucosal epithelial cells.

E. antibody mediated viral inactivation.

1. Pair serums:

A. monozygotic twins’ serums

B. dizygotic twins’ serum

C. serums taken from different veins

D. serums of two patients with same diseases

E. *serums of one patient, the diseases taken in dynamics

1. Passive immunization is indicated in:

A. tuberculosis.

B. enteric fever.

C. diphtheria.

D. rubella.

E. pertussis

1. Patient has the Chronic Granulomatosis Disease (CGD). What deficiency of immune system has this patient?

A. B cell defect.

B. Т cell defect.

C. both В and Т cell defects.

D. Complement deficiency.

E. *Phagocyte Deficiencies

1. Patient has the DiGeorge's Syndrome. What deficiency of immune system has this patient?

A. B cell defect.

B. *Т cell defect.

C. both В and Т cell defects.

D. Complement deficiency.

E. Phagocyte Deficiencies

1. Patient has the Thymic Aplasia. What deficiency of immune system has this patient?

A. B cell defect.

B. *Т cell defect.

C. both В and Т cell defects.

D. Complement deficiency.

E. Phagocyte Deficiencies

1. Patient has the X-Linked Hypogammaglobulinemia (Bruton's Agammaglobulinemia). What deficiency of immune system has this patient?

A. *B cell defect.

B. Т cell defect.

C. both В and Т cell defects.

D. Complement deficiency.

E. Phagocyte Deficiencies

1. Pollen is which type of allergen?

A. contactant

B. ingestant

C. injectant

D. *inhalant

E. insectant

1. Precipitated anthrax serum contains:

A. the causative agent of anthrax

B. anthrax toxins

C. spores of bacillus anthracis

D. *antibodies to a specific antigene of bacillus anthracis

E. normal antibodies

1. Precipitation serum:

A. receive from donor blood

B. use for therapy

C. *use for serological identifying of microorganisms

D. use for serological diagnosis of infectious diseases

E. contains monoclonal antibodies

1. Precipitation test is (true everything, except):

A. reaction of sedimentation of a soluble antigene

B. interaction an antigene-antibody

C. serological test

D. *the mechanism of realization of cellular immunity

E. passes in a solution of electrolit

1. Precipitation test use (correct all,except):

A. in diagnostics of Anthrax

B. for definition toxigenity of diphtheritic cultures

C. *for definition of groups of blood

D. In forensic medicine

E. for definition of class Ig

1. Precipitation test uses for definition toxin production of diphtheritic cultures:

A. ring precipitation

B. *in gel

C. on glass-slide

D. detailed

E. indirect

1043. Presumptive agglutination test allows to do a preliminary conclusion about selected pure culture. Choose faithful assertion concerning this test:

A. *used for the exposure of unknown microorganism by a specific serum

B. used only for determination of level of antibodies in the patient’s serum

C. a test is conducted in the wells of polystyrene plates

D. the account of test is conducted in 2-3 hours

E. allows to define the titre of incomplete antibodies

1. Radial immunodiffusion test is used for messure amount of the immunoglobulins in the patient’s serum. Find inside listed incorrect sentence

A. Agar is mixed with antiserum

B. Patient samples (serum) is diluted

C. All classes of immunoglobulins except IgE determination

D. *Measure Ag-Ab-Complement complex

E. Diameter of ring is proportional to concentration of antigens

1. Reaction of agglutination is a reaction:

A. sedimentation of a soluble antigene

B. *sedimentation of a corpuscular antigene

C. linkages complement

D. Immune hemolysis

E. Immune sticking

1. Reaction of antigen with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes

A. precipitation.

B. complement fixation.

C. *degranulation.

D. agglutination

E. asthma

1. Results of CFT are authentic, if in the control (everything is true,except):

A. *red blood cells - hemolysis

B. an antigene - hemolysis

C. serum– hemolysis

D. complement- hemolysis absence

E. hemolysin- hemolysis absence

1. Rheumatoid arthritis is an that affects the

A. immunodeficiency disease, muscles

B. autoimmune disease, nerves

C. allergy, cartilage

D. *autoimmune disease, joints

E. autoimmune disease, bones

1. Select the protein among listed the bacterial antigens:

A. K

B. O

C. Vi

D. *H

E. B

1. Serotyping is a serological procedure used to differentiate strains of microorganisms

A. *that have differences in antigenic composition.

B. that have differences in size

C. that have differences in molecular weigh

D. that have differences in fermentative properties

E. that have differences in morphological structure

1. Set the components of ring precipitation test:

A. antigen and patient’s serum

B. antigen, antibody, complement

C. precipitated serum and bacteria

D. antigen and tanned red blood cell diagnosticum

E. *patient’s serum and molecular antigen

1. Shoes of person accused of murder is stained with blood. How is it possible to determine, whether this blood is human?

A. using the immunofluorescence test.

B. using the agglutination test.

C. using the Coombs test

D. *using the precipitation test.

E. using the latex-agglutination test

1. Show the role of class II MHC proteins on donor cells in graft rejection?

A. they are the receptors for interleukin-2, which is produced by macrophages.when they attack the donor cells

B. *they are recognized by helper T cells, which then activate cytotoxic T cells to kill the donor cells

C. they induce the production of blocking antibodies that protect the graft

D. they induce IgE which mediates graft rejection

E. all are correct

1. Sick man with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are most likely to be caused by

A. interleukin-2

B. interleukin-10

C. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes)

D. serotonin

E. bradykinin

1. Single-radial immunodiffusion (SRID) (Mancini). Choose the correct answer

A. Agar is mixed with antigen

B. Patient samples (serum) is not diluted

C. Only IgG determination

D. Measure Ag-Ab complex

E. *Diameter of ring is proportional to concentration of antigens

1056. Slide agglutination test allows to do a preliminary conclusion about selected pure culture. Choose faithful assertion concerning this test:

A. *used for the exposure of unknown microorganism by a specific serum

B. used only for determination of level of antibodies in the patient’s serum

C. a test is conducted in the wells of polystyrene plates

D. the account of test is conducted in 2-3 hours

E. allows to define the titre of incomplete antibodies

1. Specificity of antibody is directly related to the active center which is located in the molecule of immunoglobulin:

A. Between the constant parts of H- and L-chains

B. Between the variable parts of Н-chains

C. Between the constant parts of Н-chains

D. In the joint region of immunoglobuline

E. *Between the variable parts of H- and L- chains

1. Specificity of antigen is determined by:

A. Chemical structure

B. Foreignness

C. *Epitopes

D. In size electric charge

E. Size of molecular weight

1. Specificity of antigen is predefined:

A. By a chemical nature

B. Foreignness

C. *Determination groups

D. In size of electric potential

E. By size of molecular weight

1. Specify that is marked a number 1?

A. Antigens

B. Bacteria

C. *Staphylococcus aureus

D. Streptococcus hemolyticus

E. Antiglobulin

1. Specify, why IgG and IgM is able to activate complement.

A. Because they have complement binding point in the Fab fragment

B. Because their third domain adsorbs C2 and C4

C. *Because there is a place for attachment of C1 in a joint region

D. Because only their light chains are able to fix complement

E. Because there is similarity between their disulphide bridge and C1-C4

1. Structurally the molecule of immunoglobulin (IgМ) consists of:

A. one monomer

B. two monomers

C. three monomers

D. four monomers

E. *five monomers

1. Swiss-type agammaglobulinaemia is due to:

A. *B cell defect.

B. Т cell defect.

C. both В and Т cell defects.

D. Complement deficiency.

E. Phagocyte Deficiencies

1. Systemic lupus erythematosus is associated with deficiency of:

A. *Cl, C4

B. B cells

C. Т cells

D. No correct answer

E. Phagocyte

1. The radial immunodiffusion test (Mancini technique) quantifies amount of

A. *immunoglobulins’ classes.

B. antibodies.

C. immune complexes.

D. cytokines.

E. All of the above.

1. The alternative way of activation of complement is carried out:

A. at participation of antibodies

B. *at participation of LPS

C. without formation membrane attack complex

D. at formation of a complex an antigen - antibody

E. at formation of R-forms of microorganisms

1. The amount of immunoglobulins of different classes in blood serum we can define by a simple radial immunodiffusion test. It is necessary for this purpose:

A. *to mix up an antiserum with gel. Bring an antigen in wells, done in gel

B. to mix up an antigen with gel. Bring a specific serum in wells, done in gel

C. To make wells in neutral gel. To bring in an antigen in one of them, in other is an antibody

D. To do a well in a centr in neutral gel, where to bring in an antigen. Make four wells, around and bring in the different types of antibodies into them

E. To mix antigen and specific antibody in the neutral gel

1. The basis of all immunologic tests is:

A. process of recognition of antigen by the receptors of macrophage

B. co-operating of antigen with dendritic cells

C. recognition of antibody by antigen’s epitopes

D. *co-operating of antigen with an antibody

E. all of assertions are true

1. The basis of CFT is activation of:

A. *complement

B. antigenes

C. antibodies

D. red blood cells

E. hemolysin

1. The Classical way of activation complement is carried out:

A. without participation of antibodies

B. at participation properdin

C. without formation membrane attack complex

D. *at formation of an antigen – antibody complex

E. at formation L-transformations

1. The complement proteins act sequentially and this results in an amplification of the activity of the response. This type of response is referred to as a(n)

A. synergism

B. *cascade

C. avalanche

D. amplified response

E. all are true

1. The components of hemagglutination test(HA) are:

A. Specific serum, sheep red blood cells

B. *Viral material, red blood cells

C. Unknown antibodies, chicken red blood cells

D. Virus, sheep red blood cells

E. Pair serums, viral diagnosticum

1. The contact with allergen that results in symptoms is called the

A. sensiling dose

B. degranulation dose

C. *provocative dose

D. desensitizing dose

E. inhibition dose

1. The direct, immediate cause of allergic symptoms is the action of

A. the allergen directly on smooth muscle

B. the allergen on B lymphocytes

C. *allergic mediators released from mast cells and basophils

D. IgE on smooth muscle

E. the allergen on mast cells

1. The double antibody sandwich assay is normally used for the detection of

A. *antigens

B. antibodies

C. either antigens or antibodies

D. limphocytes

E. cytokines

1. The first level tests for assessment of immune status includes all of the following determinations, ECXEPT:

A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);

B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;

C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;

D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.

E. *Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)

1. The immune response of organism is activared with recognition of foreign antigen. Which of the listed proteins are able to recognize an antigen?

A. beta-globulins

B. Albumens

C. Glycoproteins

D. *Immunoglobulins

E. a-fetoprotein

1. The isotypes of immunoglobulins are divided into the varieties in:

A. Variable region of light chain.

B. Constant region of light chain

C. Variable region of heavy chain

D. *Constant region of of heavy chain

E. Any area

1. The IV type of hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by

A. edema without a cellular infiltrate

B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils

C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophages

D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils

E. cellular infiltration

1. The level of immunoglobulins in the patient’s serum is determined by the Manchini test. How does the positive result of this reaction look?

A. sediment

B. discoloration

C. even dimness

D. *formation of rings precipitation

E. gasification

1. The main advantage of passive immunization over active immunization is that

A. it can be administered orally

B. *it provides antibody more rapidly

C. antibody persists for a longer period

D. it contains primarily IgM

E. it contains only antibacterial antibodies

1. The major function(s) of an antigen-antibody reaction is(are)

A. to mark and target antigens for destruction by other components of the immune system.

B. to detect unknow antigen

C. to detect unknow antibody

D. *All are true

E. No correct unswer

1. The Manchini precipitation test is very important in the immunology. Choose the correct answer

A. *Agar is mixed with antiserum

B. Patient samples (serum) is not diluted

C. Only IgM determination

D. Measure Ag-Ab-Complement complex

E. Diameter of ring is not proportional to concentration of antigens

1. The material from patient for statement agglutination reaction with the purpose serodiagnostic is:

A. *serum

B. diagnosticum

C. culture

D. agglutinated serum

E. physiological solution

1. The material from patient for statement agglutination reaction with the purpose seroidentification is:

A. diagnosticum

B. cultures

C. *serum

D. agglutinated serum

E. physiological solution

1. The molecule of immunoglobulin (IgG) consists of:

A. *2th H and 2th L chains

B. th H-chains

C. th L- chains

D. th H-chains

E. th L-chains

1. The principal difference between anaphylaxic (type I) and cytotoxic (type II) hypersensitivity is

A. *the class (isotype) of antibody

B. the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed

C. the participation of macrophages

D. the participation of T cells

E. correct all

1. The principal difference between cytotoxic (type II) and immune complex (type III) hypersensitivity is

A. the class (isotype) of antibody

B. *the site where antigen-antibody complexes are formed

C. the participation of complement

D. the participation of T cells

E. interraction between antigen and antibody

1. The protein A on certain strains of Staphylococcus aureus is used the following tests:

A. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)

B. Latex agglutination (LA)

C. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

D. *Coagglutination (COA)

E. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)

1. The purpose of the use of immunological reactions for serum authentication is determination of:

A. *Unknown bacteria

B. A level of specific antibodies is in a serum

C. Level of complement

D. Level of lysozymes

E. All of the above-mentioned right

1. The role of antigen in the Askoli’s thermoprecipitin test is playd by:

A. bacteria

B. virus

C. levage of the surface of the tested object

D. *thermoextract animal’s skin

E. patient’s blood

1. The second level tests for assessment of immune status (analytical) includes all of the following determinations, ECXEPT:

A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+);

B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test;

C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast transformation test);

D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity;

E. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood

1. The single radial diffusion assay (Mancini technique) quantitates

A. antibodies

B. *antigens

C. immune complexes

D. cytokines

E. complement

1. The symptoms of an immune complex reaction are due to

A. *an inflammatory response

B. histaminesies.

C. autoimmune antigens.

D. IgE.

E. autoimmune antibodies

1. The titer of complement:

A. a minimum quantity causing partial hemolysis of red blood cells in hemolytic system

B. *a minimum quantity causing full hemolysis

C. a maximum quantity causing full hemolysis

D. minimum quantity at which hemolysis is absent

E. the maximum quantity causing partial hemolysis

1. The working doze of complement must be above its titer on:

A. *20-30 %

B. -40 %

C. -50 %

D. -60 %

E. -70 %

1. There was a necessity to probe the presence of antibodies against the hepatitis B virus in the patient’s serum. A ELISA is used. Specify necessary components:

A. Patient’s serum labeled with an enzyme, specific antigen

B. Specific serum, virus, antigen, antiglobulin serum

C. Virus, antigen in wells, specific serum, substance

D. *Viral antigen in wells, patient’s serum, antiglobulins serum labeled with an enzyme, substance

E. Patient’s serum in wells, viral antigen, antiglobulins serum labeled with an enzyme

1. Types of agglutination reaction(everything is true, except):

A. latex-agglutination

B. indirect hemagglutination

C. *precipitation

D. on glass-slide

E. coagglutination

1. Vaccination is synonymous with ____ immunity.

A. natural active

B. artificial passive

C. *artificial active

D. natural passive

E. non are correct

1. Viruses antigens can be all, EXCEPT:

A. Capsid’s proteins

B. Internal sproteins

C. Nucleoproteins

D. *Nucleic acid

E. Glycoproteins of envelope

1. What among transferred does relate to the indirect hemagglutination test?

A. bacterial diagnosticum and patient’s serum

B. *patient’s serum and tanned red blood cells diagnosticum

C. antigen and fluorescein-tagget antibodies

D. antigen and tanned red blood cells diagnosticum

E. antigen, antibody, complement

1. What does a positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hyper-sensitivity reaction) indicate?

A. a humoral immune response has occurred

B. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred

C. both the T and B cell systems are functional

D. only the B cell system is functional

E. a humoral immune response has decreased

1. What does immunodeficiency with elevated IgM result in:

A. *recurrent pyogenic infections.

B. AIDS

C. All answers are correct.

D. No correct answer

E. recurrent fungal infections

1. What examination is not used for the second level of immune status assessment?

A. Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+);

B. Leukocyte migration inhibition test;

C. Examination of proliferative ability of T– and B–lymphocytes (lymphocyte blast transformation test);

D. Cutaneous tests of hypersensitivity;

E. *Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood

1. What from next molecules are the best antigens?

A. Lipid

B. Glucose

C. Fat acids

D. *Proteins

E. Carbonhydrates

1. What from the next classes of immunoglobuline is the most numerous and able to be passed from the mother to the child?

A. *IgG

B. IgM

C. IgD

D. IgE

E. IgA

1. What immune response will be after infectious disease

A. natural, acquired, passive

B. artificial, acquired, passive.

C. artificial, acquired, active.

D. *natural, acquired, active

E. all answers are incorrect

1. What is a criterion of negative CFT:

A. *full hemolysis of red cells

B. hemolysis absence

C. partial hemolysis of red cells with intensity +++, ++

D. precipitate formation

E. agglutinate formation

1. What is criteria of positive agglutination test:

A. partial hemolysis

B. *agglutination with intensity ++++, +++, ++

C. a phenomenon of spontaneous agglutination

D. sedementation of erythrocytes

E. Full hemolysis of erythrocytes

1. What is difference between precpitation and agglutination tests:

A. *an antigene - molecular

B. an antigene – corpuscular

C. antibodies – monoclonal

D. Antibodies – polyclonal

E. Antibodies – blocking

1. What is difference between precpitation and agglutination tests? Show the correct answer.

A. *an antigene - molecular

B. an antigene – corpuscular

C. antibodies – monoclonal

D. Antibodies – polyclonal

E. Antibodies – blocking

1. What is DiGeorge's syndrome?

A. *T cell defect.

B. В cell defect.

C. Ataxia-telangiectasia

D. E. Chronic granulomatous disease

E. AIDS

1. What is the advantage of rocket electrophoresis over radial immunodiffusion?

A. It is easier

B. *It is more accurate

C. It requires less test material

D. It is more sensitive

E. It is less expensive

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