Text test questions 9 страница

B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

C. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay test (EMIT)

D. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis (CIE)

E. Coagglutination (COA)

1. A certain microorganism’s suspension which binds the heavy chains of antibody is used in the coagglutination test. Choose him among listed:

A. Micrococcus luteus

B. *Staphylococcus aureus

C. Escherichia coli

D. Streptococcus viridans

E. Salmonella typhi

1. A delayed hypersensitivity reaction is characterized by

A. edema without a cellular infiltrate

B. an infiltrate composed of neutrophils

C. *an infiltrate composed of helper T cells and macrophagcs

D. an infiltrate composed of eosinophils

E. an infiltrate composed of natural killers

1. A direct immunofluorescence which is used for the pathogenic microorganisms detection(Treponema pallidum, Streptococcus pyogenes etc.) fluorescein can be binded to:

A. microorganism

B. the sheep red blood cells

C. specific antibody against the human globulins

D. *specific antibody against a microorganism

E. specific antibody against complement

1. A hypersensitive reaction occurs

A. during the first exposure to an antigen.

B. in individuals with diseases of the immune system.

C. *on a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen.

D. during autoimmune diseases.

E. in immunologically-deficient individuals.

1. A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered

A. *attenuated

B. denatured

C. a toxoid

D. an adjuvant

E. subunit

1. A patient with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines. The symptoms are MOST likely to be caused by

A. interleukin-2

B. *slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes)

C. serotonin

D. bradykinin

E.?-interferon

1. A positive tuberculin skin test (a delayed hyper-sensitivity reaction) indicates that

A. a humoral immune response has occurred

B. *a cell-mediated immune response has occurred

C. both the T and B cell systems are functional

D. only the B cell system is functional

E. level of antibodies to tuberculin is normal

1. A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of

A. *delayed-type allergy

B. acute contact dermatitis

C. autoimmunity

D. eczema

E. atopy

1. A preliminary conclusion about the selected pure culture allows to do presumptive agglutination test. Choose faithful assertion concerning this test:

A. *used for the exposure of unknown microorganism by a specific serum

B. used only for determination of level of antibodies in the patient’s serum

C. a test is conducted in the wells of polystyrene plates

D. the account of test is conducted in 2-3 hours

E. allows to define the titre of incomplete antibodies

1. A primary immune response arises up at the first contact with an antigen. Which Ig class is the most rapidly synthesized and bind the antigen?

A. IgD

B. *IgM

C. IgG

D. IgA

E. IgE

1. A simple radial immunodiffusion allows to define the amount of immunoglobulins of different classes in a serum. It is necessary for this purpose:

A. *to mix up an antiserum with gel. Bring an antigen in wells, done in gel

B. to mix up an antigen with gel. Bring a specific serum in wells, done in gel

C. To make wells in neutral gel. To bring in an antigen in one of them, in other is an antibody

D. To do a well in a centr in neutral gel, where to bring in an antigen. Make four wells, around and bring in the different types of antibodies into them

E. To mix antigen and specific antibody in the neutral gel

1. A subunit vaccine contains

A. antiserum

B. parts of bacterial cells

C. parts of viruses

D. *parts of bacterial cells or parts of viruses

E. exotoxin

1. A titre of agglutination test is accepted as:

A. the least dillution of antigen

B. *maximum dillution of serum, which resuts positivly with the specific antigen

C. minimum dillution of serum, which results positivly with an antigen

D. minimum dillution of antibody

E. maximum dillution of antigen

1. A toxoid is a(n)

A. type of antibody that combines with a toxin,

B. type of enzyme that destroys toxins

C. *inactivated toxin.

D. type of bacterium that resists phagocytosis.

E. type of virus.

1. About complement (everything is true,except):

A. the nonspecific factor of immunity

B. contains in all biological liquids, except for spinal fluid and liquids of the forward chamber of an eye

C. termolabile

D. *The highest titer in spinal fluid

E. System of the proteins capable to self-organizing

1. Acording to precipitation reaction all are true, except:

A. reaction of sedimentation of a soluble antigene

B. interaction an antigene-antibody

C. *the mechanism of realization of cellular immunity

D. serological test

E. passes in a solution of electrolit

1. ?Administration of immune serum globulin is a form of ____ immunization that ____

A. active, prevents infection

B. therapeutic, prevents disease

C. *passive, provides long-term immunity

D. prophylactic, stimulates the immune system.

E. active, naturel

1. Agglutination salmonella serum contains:

A. the causative agent of typhy

B. endotoxin

C. Vi-antigen of salmonella

D. *antibodies to a specific antigen of salmonella

E. normal antibodies

1. All immunologic tests are based on:

A. process of recognition of antigen by the receptors of macrophage

B. co-operating of antigen with dendritic cells

C. recognition of antibody by antigen’s epitopes

D. *co-operating of antigen with an antibody

E. all of assertions are true

1. Allergic contact dermatitis is mediated by

A. *sensitized T cells.

B. IgG antibodies.

C. IgE antibodies.

D. basophils and mast cells.

E. sensitized macrophages.

1. An antigen found in relatively high concentration in the plasma of normal fetuses and a high proportion of patients with progressive carcinoma of the colon is

A. viral antigen

B. *carcinoembryonic antigen

C. alpha-fetoprotein

D. heterophil antigen

E. Forsman antigen

1. An attenuated vaccine is composed of

A. killed microorganisms.

B. *living, weakened microorganisms.

C. inactivated bacterial toxins.

D. purified macromolecules.

E. recombinant vectors.

1. An exaggerated or inappropriate immune response is known as a(n)

A. immunodeficiency

B. precipitation

C. histamine.

D. *hypersensitivity.

E. allergen

1. An example of a type III immune complex disease is

A. *serum sickness

B. contact dermatitis

C. graft rejection

D. atopy

E. asthma

1. An immune deficiency disorder, genetic testing reveals a defect in a tyrosinekinase gene. Which of the following would be seen in patients with this immune deficiency disorder?

A. particular susceptibility to viral and fungal infections

B. *very low quantities of immunoglobulinin their serum

C. depletion of lymphocytes in the paracortical areas of lymph nodes

D. normal numbers of B lymphocytes

E. profound deficiencies of cell-mediated immunity

1. Antibodies against acetylcholine neural receptors were measured in a 35-year-old woman and are thought to be involved in the pathogenesis of which of the following

A. acute idiopathic polyneuritis

B. Guillain-Barr syndrome

C. multiple sclerosis

D. *myasthenia gravis

E. postpericardiotomy syndrome

1. Antibodies that are responsible for immune complexes are called

A. precipitins

B. agglutinins

C. hemagglutinins

D. *all of these

E. not correct answers

1. Antigen at statement indirect (passive) hemagglutination test with the purpose serological diagnostic:

A. Patient’s serum

B. Red blood cells with antibodies surface

C. *Red blood cells with antigen surface

D. Nonsensitized erythrocytes

E. Suspension of the killed microorganisms

1. Antigen composition of bacteria has a crucial value:

A. At the cultivation of bacteria

B. For the study of their biological properties

C. *For establishing of the bacteria type

D. For determination of bacteria’s resistance

E. At determining of toxigenic properties

1. Antigen structure of bacteria has a crucial value:

A. At the cultivation of bacteria

B. For the study of their biological properties

C. *For establishing of the bacteria type

D. For determination of bacteria’s resistance

E. At determining of toxigenic properties

1. Antigenes of precipitation test:

A. corpuscular

B. are absent

C. *molecular

D. only hapten

E. antigens are not solubile

1. Antigens used for the precipitation test can be:

A. serum’s proteins

B. liquid and transparent

C. lysed bacteria

D. the extracts of microorganisms

E. *all of the above is true

1. Antigens of CFT (everything is true,except):

A. viruses

B. *corpuscular

C. haptens

D. high-grade

E. soluble

1. As an investigated material for serological diagnostics (definition of a level of antibodies) use:

A. pus

B. sputum

C. urine

D. *serum of blood

E. liquor

1. At O-agglutination bacteria stick together:

A. By flagellas

B. *By bodies

C. By capsules

D. By hairs

E. By proteins

1. At research of pair serums criterion of estimation CFT at serological diagnosis of bacterial infections:

A. norm of controls

B. full absence of hemolysis

C. partial hemolysis

D. diagnostic titer

E. *Increase of a titer of antibodies in 2 and more times

1. B cells are responsible for which allergies?

A. asthma

B. anaphylaxis

C. serum sickness

D. atopy

E. *all of the above

949. Bacteria stick together at O-agglutination:

A. By flagellas

B. *By bodies

C. By capsules

D. By hairs

E. By proteins

1. Bacteriolysis test:

A. it is not specific

B. comes to an end phagocytosis

C. *comes to an end lysis

D. comes to an end hemolysis

E. it is possible only in vitro

1. BCG vaccine is a:

A. *live attenuated preparation.

B. killed preparation.

C. toxoid preparation.

D. recombinant preparation.

E. vector vaccine

1. BCG vaccine is used for prevent:

A. diphtheria

B. *tuberculosis

C. botulism

D. brucelosis

E. Q fever

1. Binding of antibody to epitopes of antigen is provided by active center of immunoglobuline which is placed:

A. Between the constant parts of Н-chains

B. Between the variable parts of Н-chains

C. Between the constant parts of H- and L-chains

D. *Between the variable parts of H- and L-chains

E. In the variable parts of immunoglobuline

1. Blood analysis of the patient reveals decreased levels of C4 and decreased levels of C1 inhibitor. This complement deficiency is likely to lead to which of the following conditions?

A. bacteremia

B. an increased susceptibility to pyogenic infections

C. *angioedema

D. decreased production of anaphylatoxins

E. enhancement of antibody production

1. Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem?

A. *Potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease

B. High risk of T cell leukemia

C. Inability to use a live donor

D. Delayed hypersensitivity

E. High risk of immunodeficiency

1. Certain substances must be utilized for processin of the red blood cells for absorption of antigen on RBC in the IHT. Specify one of these substances among listed.

A. Formalin

B. Lysozyme

C. Inulin

D. *Tanninum

E. Ksantin

1. CFT is used at diagnostics (true everything,except):

A. a syphilis

B. gonorrhoeas

C. rickettsiosis

D. virus infections

E. *dysbacteriosis

1. CFT it is based on activation:

A. antigenes

B. antibodies

C. red blood cells

D. hemolysin

E. *complement

1. CFT was discovered:

A. L.Pasteur

B. L.A.Zilber

C. A. P.Vasserman

D. *Z.Borde, O.Zhangu

E. I.I.Mechnikov

1. Child, 9 mounth old, has recurrent pyogenic infections and bleeding. What immunodeficiency does child have?

A. Combined B Cell and T Cell Deficiencies

B. B cell defect.

C. Т cell defect.

D. Complement deficiency.

E. Phagocyte Deficiencies

1. Choose among listed below the indicator system of CFT:

A. complement+hemolysin

B. patient’s serum

C. red blood cells of I (0) groups and hemolysin

D. specific antigen

E. *sheep red blood cells and hemolysin

1. Choose among listed for what purpose can we use CFT at examination of microorganisms?

A. an estimation of the immune status

B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency

C. *serological identification of microorganisms

D. serological diagnosis of infectious diseases

E. definition of group of blood

1. Choose among listed the mechanism of precipitation test:

A. hydrophobic interactions

B. *connection of the active centers of antibodies and determinant groups of antigenes

C. Van-Der Waalse interactions

D. Brown movement

E. electrostatic interaction

1. Choose examination which is not used for the first level of immune status assessment?

A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);

B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;

C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;

D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.

E. *Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)

1. Choose functions, not incident to the antibodies among listed:

A. neutralize bacteria

B. neutralize exotoxin

C. opsonizate bacteria

D. activate cytotoxic cells absorbing on the affected cells

E. *stimulate the synthesis of interferon

1. Choose incorrect sentence according to antigene of precipitation test:

A. urine centrifugate

B. lysed microbial cells

C. an extract of foodstuff

D. bacterial toxins

E. *suspension of bacteria

1. Choose inside listed property of antigenes for precipitation test:

A. Corpuscular

B. only hapten

C. are absent

D. *molecular

E. antigens are not solubile

1. Choose secondary immunodeficiency

A. DiGeorge's syndrome

B. *AIDS

C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

D. Ataxia-telangiectasia

E. Chronic granulomatous disease

1. Choose test which is not used for the first level of immune status assessment?

A. Determination of total quantity of lymphocytes in periferal blood (absolute and relative);

B. Determination of Т– and B–lymphocytes in peripheral blood;

C. Determination of the concentration of the main classes of immunoglobulins;

D. Determination of phagocitic activity of leukocytes.

E. *Determination of subpopulations of T lymphocytes (CD4+ and CD8+)

1. Choose the components of indirect immunofluorescence among the resulted ingredients:

A. antigen and patient’s serum

B. serum and diagnosticum

C. antigen and fluorescein-tagget antibodies

D. *antigen, antibody, fluorescein-tagget antihuman gammaglobulin

E. antigen, antibody, комплемент

1. Choose the correct answer acording to titer of complement:

A. a minimum quantity causing partial hemolysis of red blood cells in hemolytic system

B. *a minimum quantity causing full hemolysis

C. a maximum quantity causing full hemolysis

D. minimum quantity at which hemolysis is absent

E. the maximum quantity causing partial hemolysis

1. Complement fixation refers to

A. the ingestion of C3b-coated bacteria by macrophages

B. the destruction of complement in serum by heating at 56 °C for 30 minutes

C. *the binding of complement components by antigen-antibody complexes

D. the interaction of C3b with mast cells

E. the binding of complement components by bacteria

1. Complement(everything is true, except):

A. stimulates phagocytosis

B. possesses antigenic properties

C. *possesses oncogenic properties

D. Defines bactericidal action of serum

E. Possesses cytolytic activity

1. Components of a membrane attack complex of complement:

A. С1С4С2С3

B. С1С4С2С3С5

C. *С5С6С7С8С9

D. С3С5С6С7С8

E. С6С7С8С9

1. Components of CFT at serological diagnosis of infectious diseases (everything is true,except):

A. complement

B. patient’s serum

C. specific antigen

D. hemolytic system

E. *immune serum

1. Components of CFT at serological identification (everything is true,except):

A. complement

B. *patient’s serum

C. investigated culture

D. hemolytic system

E. immune serum

1. Controllable properties of components of CFT (everything is true,except):

A. osmotic stability of red cells

B. anticomplementary activity of patient’s serum

C. anticomplementary activity of an antigen

D. *isotonity of saline solution

E. anticomplementary activity of a hemolysin

1. Criteria of positive agglutination test:

A. partial hemolysis

B. *agglutination with intensity ++++, +++, ++

C. a phenomenon of spontaneous agglutination

D. sedementation of erythrocytes

E. Full hemolysis of erythrocytes

1. Criterion of negative CFT:

A. hemolysis absence

B. partial hemolysis of red cells with intensity +++, ++

C. *full hemolysis of red cells

D. precipitate formation

E. agglutinate formation

1. Diagnosticum at statement indirect (passive) hemagglutination test with the purpose serological diagnostic:

A. Patient’s serum

B. Red blood cells with antibodies surface

C. Nonsensitized erythrocytes

D. *Red blood cells with antigen surface

E. Suspension of the killed microorganisms

1. Difference between precpitation and agglutination tests:

A. *an antigene - molecular

B. an antigene – corpuscular

C. antibodies – monoclonal

D. Antibodies – polyclonal

E. Antibodies – blocking

1. DiGeorge's syndrome is due to:

A. *T cell defect.

B. В cell defect.

C. Ataxia-telangiectasia

D. E. Chronic granulomatous disease

E. AIDS

1. Direct Coons tests use a labelled antibody to identify.

A. an unknown antibody

B. fixed complement

C. *an unknown microbe

D. precipitins

E. level of immunoglobulines in serum

1. Direct immunofluorescence tests use a labelled antibody to identify.

A. *an unknown microbe

B. an unknown antibody

C. fixed complement

D. precipitins

E. level of immunoglobulines in serum

1. During O-agglutination bacteria stick together:

A. By flagellas

B. *By bodies

C. By capsules

D. By hairs

E. By proteins

1. Each of the following statements concerning a hybridoma cell is correct EXCEPT;

A. The spleen cell component provides the ability to form antibody

B. The myeloma cell component provides the ability to grow indefinitely

C. *The antibody produced by a hybridoma cell is IgM, because heavy-chain switching does not occur

D. The antibody produced by a hybridoma cell is homogeneous; ie, it is directed against a single epitope

E. The hybridoma cells formed by fussion of myeloma cell and plasma cell

1. Farmer's lung is the result of

A. sensitized T cells

B. *immune complex reactions

C. type I hypersensitivity.

D. cytotoxic reactions

E. urticaria

1. Find correct statement concerning of agglutination test:

A. agglutination reaction is sedimentation of a soluble antigene

B. *agglutination reaction is sedimentation of a corpuscular antigene

C. agglutination reaction is linkages complement

D. agglutination reaction is immune hemolysis

E. agglutination reaction is immune sticking

1. Fine-grained sediment resulting from agglutination reaction implies:

A. co-operation takes a place between flagella antigens and antibodies

B. *somatic antigens co-operate with antibodies

C. sediment has visen up in 18-24 hours

D. sediment has visen up in 2-4 hours

E. negative result

1. For prevent diseases caused by bacterial toxins it necessary uses

A. specific antibodies,

B. type of enzyme that destroys toxins,

C. *toxoids,

D. IgM,

E. Bacteriophages

1. For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of patint’s serum?

A. an estimation of the immune status

B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency

C. serological identification of microorganisms

D. *serological diagnosis of infectious diseases

E. definition of group of blood

1. For what purpose can we use CFT at examination of microorganisms?

A. an estimation of the immune status

B. serological diagnosis of congenital immunodeficiency

C. *serological identification of microorganisms

D. serological diagnosis of infectious diseases

E. definition of group of blood

1. Fourth type of hypersensitivities are mediated by

A. allergens.

B. macrophages.

C. humoral antibodies.

D. antigens

E. *T cells

1. Grafts between geneticully identical individuals (ie, identical twins)

A. are rejected slowly as a result of minor histocompatibilily antigens

B. are subject to hyperacute rejection

C. *are not rejected, even without immunosuppression

D. are not rejected if a kidney is grafted, but skin grafts are rejected

E. are rejected slowly as a result of minor A, B, O antigens

1. Hemagglutination inhibition test is often used for diagnostics of viral infection. Select the components of this test, if it belongs to serologic diagnostics.

A. Specific serum, viral antigen, chicken red blood cells

B. Viral diagnosticum, patient’s serum, sheep red blood cells

C. *Pair serums, viral diagnosticum, chicken red blood cells

D. Viral antigen, specific serum, chicken red blood cells

E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, pair serums

1. Hemolysin is used in CFT as component of the indicator system. What is hemolysin?

A. patient’s serum

B. hemolysed blood

C. *the rabbit serum, contains antibodies to sheep red blood cells

D. serum of guine pig

E. suspension of sheep’s red blood cells

1. Hemolysin is:

A. patient’s serum

B. hemolysed blood

C. *the rabbit serum, contains antibodies to sheep red blood cells

D. serum of guine pig

E. suspension of sheep’s red blood cells

1. Hemolysis reaction is used with the purpose:

A. definitions of group of blood

B. *titrations of complement

C. definitions of osmotic stability of red blood cells

D. serological identification of microorganisms

E. estimations of phagocytic activity of neutrophils

1. Hemolytic anemia develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST probably an example of

A. autoimmune diseases

B. cell-mediated hypersensitivity

C. immune-complex hypersensitivity

D. *cytotoxic hypersensitivity

E. atopic hypersensitivity

1. HIT is often used in medical practice for diagnostics of viral infection. Select the components of this test, if it belongs to serologic diagnostics.

A. Specific serum, viral antigen, chicken red blood cells

B. Viral diagnosticum, patient’s serum, sheep red blood cells

C. *Pair serums, viral diagnosticum, chicken red blood cells

D. Viral antigen, specific serum, chicken red blood cells

E. Specific serum, viral diagnosticum, pair serums

1. Hypersensitivity to penicillin and bypersensitivity to poison oak are both

A. mediated by IgE antibody

B. mediated by IgG and IgM antibody

C. *initiated by haptens

D. initiated by Th-2 cells

E. initiated by proteins

1. Hypersensitivity to pollen is

A. *mediated by IgE antibody

B. mediated by IgG and IgM antibody

C. initiated by haptens

D. initiated by Th-2 cells

E. initiated by Th-1 cells

1. If all controls of CFT in norm hemolysis it is observed in which control tube(true everything, except):

A. an antigen

B. patient’s serum

C. hemolytic system

D. immune serum

E. *complement

1. Immediate hypersensitivities are mediated by

A. *allergens

B. macrophages

C. humoral antibodies

D. antigens

E. T cells

1. Immune hemolysis test is used with the purpose:

A. definitions of group of blood

B. *titrations of complement

C. definitions of osmotic stability of red blood cells

D. serological identification of microorganisms

E. estimations of phagocytic activity of neutrophils

1. Immunofluorescence reactions are currently used as rapid assays for the detection:

A. of viruses in patient’s sample

B. of bacteria in patient’s sample

C. of spirocheates in patient’s sample

D. *all above

E. not correct answer

1. Immunoglobulin chemical structure is:

A. protein.

B. carbohydrate.

C. *glycoprotein.

D. lipid

E. nucleic acid.

1. Immunological test for serologic diagnostics are directed to the detection of:

A. Unknown bacteria

B. *level of serum specific antibodies

C. Level of complement

D. Level of lysosyme

E. All of the is true

1. Immunosuppressive agent/s is/are:

A. methotrexate.

B. cyclosporine.

C. anti-lymphocytic serum.

D. No correct answer

E. *all answers are true

1. Immunotherapy for hypersensitivities probably works because of

A. *the production of IgG blocking antibodies

B. development of suppressor T cells.

C. saturation of IgE antibodies.

D. All of the above are correct

E. All of the above are not correct

1. Immunotherapy to prevent generalized anaphylaxis is done by injecting dilute doses of

A. IgG antibodies

B. antihistamine.

C. IgE antibodies.

D. *offending antigen

E. offending antibody

1. In direct immunofluorescence test using for the pathogenic microorganisms detection(Treponema pallidum, Streptococcus pyogenes etc.) fluorescein must be binded to:

A. microorganism

B. the sheep red blood cells

C. specific antibody against the human globulins

D. *specific antibody against a microorganism

E. specific antibody against complement

1. In setting up a complement fixation test for antibody, the reactants should be added in what sequence? (Ag = antigen; Ab = antibody; C = complement; EA = antibody-coated indicator erylhrocytes.)

A. Ag + EA + C/wait/ + patient's serum

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