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A. Bacillus
B. Clostridium
C. Proteus
D. Ricketsia
E. *Mycoplasma
126. What analogous structures of eukaryotes are bacteria mesosomes?
A. lysosomes
B. Golgi apparatus
C. polyribosomes
D. endosomes
E. *mitochondria
127. When flagella are distributed all round the bacterial cell, the arrangement is known as:
A. monotrichous
B. lophotrichous
C. amphitrichous
D. bitrichous
E. *peritrichous
128. Endo medium is an example of:
A. transport medium.
B. enrichment medium.
C. enriched medium.
D. selective medium
E. *differential medium.
129. Levin’s medium (EMB) is an example of:
A. enrichment medium.
B. enriched medium.
C. selective medium
D. simple medium
E. *differential medium.
130. Choose among listed bacteria which produce endospores:
A. Bacterium
B. Corynebacterium
C. Mycobacterium
D. Micrococcus
E. *Bacillus
131. Bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 37°C are known as:
A. psychrophiles.
B. thermophiles.
C. heterophiles.
D. none of the above.
E. *mesophiles.
132. Who was father of microbiology?
A. Robert Koch
B. Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
C. Edward Jenner.
D. John Hunter
E. *LouisPasteur.
133. Who was father of antiseptic surgery?
A. Ferdinand Cohn.
B. John Needham.
C. Karl Landsteiner.
D. Robert Koch.
E. *Joseph Lister.
134. Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 15°C
A. heterophiles
B. thermophiles
C. mesophiles
D. none of the above
E. *psychrophiles
135. Who did first discovere of Salvarsan?
A. Karl Landsteiner.
B. Gerhardt Domagk.
C. Howard Florey.
D. Arthur Fleming
E. *Paul Ehrlich.
136. Who did advance the concept of Contagium vivum?
A. Pollender.
B. Louis Pasteur.
C. Lazzaro Spallanzani.
D. Edward Jenner
E. *Fracastorius.
137. Who was the founder of scientific microbiology?
A. Robert Koch.
B. Antony van Leeuwenhoek.
C. Edward Jenner.
D. Paul Ehrlich.
E. *Louis Pasteur.
138. Who did develop rabies vaccine for the first time in 1885?
A. Semple.
B. Edward Jenner
C. Paul Ehrlich.
D. Wasserman.
E. *Louis Pasteur.
139. Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 37°C:
A. heterophiles
B. psychrophiles
C. thermophiles
D. none of the above
E. *mesophiles
140. Who of the following scientists proposed side chain theory of antibody production in 1898?
A. Elie Metchnikoff.
B. John Hunter.
C. Edward Jenner.
D. Ivanowsky
E. *Paul Ehrlich.
141. Generation time of Escherichia coli is:
A. 20 seconds
B. 20 hours.
C. 20 days.
D. none of the above.
E. *20 minutes
142. Generation time of Salmonella typhy is:
A. 20 seconds
B. 20 hours.
C. 20 days.
D. none of the above.
E. *20 minutes
143. Choose among listed bacteria whose optimal temperature for growth is 15°C:
A. heterophiles
B. thermophiles
C. mesophiles
D. none of the above
E. *psychrophiles
144. The period between inaculation of bacteria in a culture medium and beginning of multiplication is known as:
A. log phase.
B. stationary phase.
C. decline phase.
D. maximum phase
E. *lag phase.
145. All bacteria that inhabit the human body are:
A. autotrophs
B. phototrophs
C. chemolithotrophs
D. photolithotrophs
E. *heterotrophs
146. Choose among listed the period between inoculation of bacteria in a culture medium and beginning of multiplication:
A. log phase.
B. stationary phase.
C. decline phase.
D. maximum phase
E. *lag phase
147. All microorganisms that live in the human body are:
A. autotrophs
B. phototrophs
C. chemolithotrophs
D. photolithotrophs
E. *heterotrophs
148. Bacteria which cause illnesses at people are:
A. autotrophs
B. phototrophs
C. chemolithotrophs
D. photolithotrophs
E. *heterotrophs
149. Agar is used for solidifying culture media because:
A. it does not add to the nutritive properties of the medium.
B. it is not affected by the growth of bacteria.
C. the melting and solidifying points of agar solution are not the same.
D. it does not contain toxic substances
E. *all of the above.
150. Choose among listed the period of microbial growth curve when balance between cell division and cell death occurs:
A. lag phase.
B. log phase.
C. decline phase.
D. maximum phase
E. *stationary phase.
151. Exponential phase of growth curve of bacteria is of limited duration because of:
A. exhaustion of nutrients.
B. accumulation of toxic metabolites.
C. rise in cell density.
D. limiting of O2
E. *all of the above.
152. The process of freeing of an article from living organisms including bacterial and fungal spores and viruses is known as:
A. disinfection
B. antisepsis
C. asepsis
D. pasteurisation
E. *sterilization
153. Peptone water and nutrient broth are:
A. enriched media.
B. selective media.
C. enrichment media
D. differential medium.
E. *basal media.
154. The process of killing all microorganisms and their spores and viruses is known as:
A. antisepsis
B. asepsis
C. disinfection
D. pasteurisation
E. *sterilization
155. Destruction or inhibition of microorganisms in living tissues is known as:
A. sterilization
B. disinfection
C. asepsis
D. pasteurisation
E. *antisepsis
156. Killing of microorganisms in living tissues is:
A. pasteurisation
B. asepsis
C. disinfection
D. sterilization
E. *antisepsis
157. Incineration is an efficient method for:
A. sterilizing points of forceps.
B. sterilizing scalpel blades
C. sterilizing all-glass syringes.
D. sterilizing needles.
E. *destroying contaminated materials.
158. Heat of flame is used for sterilization of:
A. all-glass syringes.
B. glass slides
C. soiled dressings.
D. scalpel blades
E. *inoculating wires and loops
159. Heating in a hot air oven at 160°C for one hour is used for sterilization of:
A. all-glass syringes.
B. oils and jellies.
C. swab sticks.
D. petri dishes and pipets
E. *all of the above.
160. Choose among listed method of sterilization of all-glass syringes:
A. autoclaving
B. gamma rays
C. boiling
D. using chemicals
E. *heating in a hot air oven at 160°C
161. In holder method of pasteurization, milk and butterare kept at:
A. 72°C for 20 seconds.
B. 63°C for 60 minutes.
C. 72°C for 30 seconds.
D. 90°C for 30 seconds.
E. *63°C for 30 minutes.
162. Exposure of material at 60°C for 20 minutes on six consecutive days is known as:
A. autoclaving.
B. inspissation.
C. pasteurization
D. none of the above
E. *tyndallization.
163. Which of the following articles can be sterilized in an autoclave?
A. Dressing material.
B. Gloves
C. Culture media.
D. Meat-pepton broth
E. *All of the above
164. Biological control used in an autoclave is:
A. Fungy
B. Ricketsia
C. E. colli
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. *Spores of bacillus
165. Which of the following organisms is retained in the fluids filtered by Seitz filter?
A. Proteus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Clostridium
D. Micrococcus
E. *None of the above.
166. Which of the following microbes don’t pass through the Seitz filter?
A. Proteus
B. Staphylococcus
C. Clostridium
D. Micrococcus
E. *None of the above
167. Which class of immunoglobulins activate the complement cascade most effectively?
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgE
D. IgD
E. *IgM
168. Which of the following is not a form of hypersensitivity?
A. immediate
B. immune complex
C. cytotoxic
D. delayed
E. *instantaneous
169. Which of the following is the main preformed mediator released from cytoplasmic granules in mast cells upon secondary exposure?
A. prostaglandins
B. interferon
C. complement
D. leukotrienes
E. *histamine
170. Which of the following hypersensitivities is mismatched?
A. immediate--caused by insect allergies
B. cytotoxic--occurs when the wrong blood type is received
C. immune complex--elicited by antigens on vaccine or microorganisms
D. cell-mediated--from exposure to foreign antigen, like tissue transplant
E. *delayed--caused by allergies to pollens
171. Which of the following is the only treatment intended to cure an allergy?
A. antiinflammatories
B. corticosteroids
C. denatured allergens
D. topical ointments
E. *antihistamines
172. Which of the following is a major sign of transfusion reactions?
A. fever
B. inflammation
C. anaphylaxis
D. wheal and flare reaction
E. *tissue damage
173. Which of the following causes immune complex hypersensitivity?
A. Antigen-antibody complex formation
B. phagocytosis of immune complexes
C. formation of antigen-specific antibody
D. destruction of immune complexes
E. *persisting antigen-antibody complexes
174. Which of the following is not an example of an immune complex disorder?
A. systemic lupus erythematosus
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. serum sickness
D. acute glomerulonephritis
E. *hemolytic disease
175. Which type(s) of hypersensitivity sometimes develops in health workers who handle drugs?
A. Type II
B. Type III
C. Type I
D. all of the above
E. *Type IV
176. The "boy in the bubble" suffered from which of the following?
A. DiGeorge syndrome
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. leukemia
D. agammaglobulinemia
E. *severe combined immunodeficiency
177. If you were assaying serum for the presence of several antigens in the blood, which of the following methods would you choose?
A. agglutination
B. neutralization reactions
C. precipitin test
D. antibody titer
E. *immunoelectrophoresis
178. A positive reaction to the tuberculin skin test is a classic example of
A. an anaphylactic reaction
B. degranulation and release of mediators
C. a humoral immune response
D. an IgG-complement mediated reaction
E. *a delayed hypersensitivity reaction
179. Antigenic mimicry, genetic factors, viral components in cell membranes and other factors may explain:
A. allergic reactions
B. cytotoxic hypersensitivity
C. symptoms of AIDS
D. tumor formation
E. *the development of autoimmune disease
180. In allergic reactions, sensitization refers to
A. administering increasing doses of allergen to a patient to produce blocking antibodies
B. the degranulation of mast cells and basophils with release of mediators
C. the capillaries becoming more permeable and undergoing dilation
D. IgG reacting to cell-surface antigens perceived as foreign
E. *the initial recognition of an allergen and production of specific IgE
181. Which of the following pertains to a patient infected with HIV?
A. the risk of sexual transmission of the virus is eliminated by using a condom
B. decreasing cytokine levels affect macrophage and cytotoxic T cell activity
C. if the patient doesn't have symptoms, the virus cannot be transmitted to others
D. the patient will always have detectable serum antibodies
E. *the progress of the infection depends on the infective dose of the virus and how often the exposure is repeated
182. All of the following pertain to "tagged" serological tests except:
A. enzymes, radioactive material, and fluorescent dyes serve as tags
B. these are among the most sensitive immunologic tests
C. the tag allows detection of the antigen-antibody
D. they often detect nanogram quantities of an antibody or antigen
E. *they rely on precipitation or agglutination reactions
183. An anamnestic response involves a/an:
A. intense response.
B. effector response.
C. high intensity.
D. rapid memory.
E. *All of the above.
184. Which DOES NOT provide long term immunity?
A. Naturally acquired active immunity
B. Artificially acquired active immunity
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. *Artificially acquired passive immunity
185. An epitope is:
A. a T-cell.
B. a B-cell.
C. an antibody.
D. a hapten.
E. *the antigen determinant site.
186. An immunoglobulin is a:
A. protein
B. carbohydrate.
C. fatty acid.
D. nucleic acid.
E. *glycoprotein
187. The Fc region does not mediate all of the below EXCEPT binding to:
A. host tissue.
B. various cells of the immune system.
C. lysosomes
D. antigen.
E. *some phagocytic cells.
188. Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of the immunoglobulin pool?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgM
E. *IgG
189. Which immunoglobulin is the least prevalent?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgG
D. IgM
E. *IgE
190. The first tenet of clonal selection theory relies SPECIFICALLY on:
A. combinatorial joinings.
B. somatic mutations.
C. variations in the splicing process.
D. T-cell clones.
E. *B-cell clones.
191. Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE antibody production?
A. A hapten
B. Antiserum
C. Purified antigen
D. Crude antigen
E. *An adjuvant
192. Compared to the secondary antibody response, the primary response:
A. has a more rapid log phase.
B. persists for a longer plateau period.
C. attains a higher IgG titer.
D. produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.
E. *has a longer lag phase.
193. Monoclonal antibodies are produced by:
A. lymphocytes
B. myeloma cells.
C. spleen cells.
D. plasma cells.
E. *hybridomas.
194. Monoclonal antibodies are routinely used in all of the following EXCEPT:
A. the typing of tissue.
B. the identification and epidemiological study of infectious microorganisms.
C. the identification of tumor antigens.
D. the classification of leukemias.
E. *the manipulation of the immune response.
195. Which of the following DOES NOT play a role in antigen presentation?
A. MHC class I molecules
B. MHC class II molecules
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. *MHC class III molecules
196. B-cells do which of the following?
A. Proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
B. Respond to antigens by making antibodies
C. Act as antigen-processing cells
D. None of the above
E. *All of the above
197. Which of the following is NOT a T-dependent antigen?
A. Bacteria
B. Foreign red blood cells
C. Certain proteins
D. Hapten-carrier combinations
E. *Viruses
198. Which of the following best describes type I hypersensitivities?
A. The reaction of TDTH cells, cytokines, and macrophages
B. The formation of immune complexes that are deposited on basement membranes
C. Complement-dependent lysis of cells
D. Overreaction of the immune system
E. *The release of physiological mediators from IgE-bound mast cells and basophils
199. An attenuated vaccine is composed of:
A. killed microorganisms.
B. inactivated bacterial toxins.
C. purified macromolecules.
D. recombinant vectors.
E. *living, weakened microorganisms.
200. Passive immunization is routinely administered to individuals exposed to certain microbial pathogens that cause diseases, EXCEPT:
A. Botulism
B. Diphtheria
C. Hepatitis
D. Rabies
E. *Chicken pox
201. Vaccines are available for all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Hepatitis A
B. Hepatitis B
C. Tetanus
D. Measles
E. *Hepatitis C
202. Which is considered the "gold standard" of existing vaccines?
A. Purified proteins
B. DNA-based
C. Inactivated exotoxins
D. Capsular polysaccharides
E. *Whole-organism
203. In type I hypersensitivity, which of the following DOES NOT happen upon second exposure to the antigen?
A. Degranulation of sensitized mast cells
B. Histamine release
C. Smooth muscle contraction
D. Vasodilation
E. *IgE binds to Fc receptors of mast cells
204. Respiratory impairment during systemic anaphylaxis is PRIMARILY due to
A. arteriole dilation.
B. reduced blood pressure.
C. increased capillary permeability.
D. circulatory shock.
E. *smooth muscle contraction in the bronchioles.
205. Cytokines attract which of the following to the affected tissue?
A. Lymphocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Basophils
D. None of the above
E. *All of the above
206. Which of the following assays is currently being used for the detection of HIV?
A. Agglutination
B. Complement fixation
C. Immunodiffusion
D. Flow cytometry
E. *Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
207. Attenuated viral vaccines:
A. are viable.
B. infect cells.
C. produce antigens in the context of MHC I.
D. All of the above.
E. *are nonpathogenic.
208. The single radial diffusion assay (Mancini technique) quantifies:
A. antibodies
B. immune complexes.
C. cytokines
D. All of the above.
E. *antigen
209. Cell walls, when they exist, usually contain peptidoglycan in:
A. eucaryotes only.
B. fungi
C. protozoa
D. both procaryotes and eucaryotes.
E. *procaryotes only.
210. All of the following are true about agar except it:
A. liquefies at 100°C.
B. is a polysaccharide derived from a red alga.
C. Solidifies at approximately 40°C.
D. facilitates obtaining pure cultures.
E. *is metabolized by many bacteria.
211. Which of the following procedures can be used to isolate a pure culture of a bacteria from a mixture more frequently?
A. dilution in liquid medium.
B. dilution plating
C. enrichment culture
D. sedementation method.
E. *streak plating
212. Which of the following uses radiant energy as their energy source?
A. Auxotroph
B. Autotroph
C. Heterotroph
D. Lithotroph
E. *Phototroph
213. Which of the following obtain energy from the oxidation of organic chemicals?
A. Autotroph
B. Heterotroph
C. Lithotroph
D. Phototroph
E. *Chemotroph
214. Mutations that arise without exposure to external agents are called:
A. induced mutations
B. analogous mutations
C. specific mutations
D. nonsens mutations
E. *spontaneous mutations
215. A mutagen is:
A. an enzyme that repairs mutations
B. a molecule which stabilizes DNA thus prevents mutations from occurring
C. a chemical agent which changes strucrure of protein
D. an enzyme which inhibits division of cell
E. *a chemical or physical agent that induces mutations
216. A mutation that affects only a single nucleotide is called:
A. a regional mutation
B. a site mutation
C. nonsens mutation
D. analogous mutation
E. *a point mutation
217. The transfer of genetic material between bacteria in direct physical contact is called:
A. transformation
B. transduction
C. reparation
D. recombination
E. *conjugation
218. The transfer of a naked fragment of DNA between bacteria is called:
A. conjugation
B. transduction
C. general transduction
D. recombinationECT
E. *transformation
219. The transport of bacterial DNA to other bacteria via bacteriaphages is called:
A. conjugation
B. transformation
C. recombination
D. reparationCT
E. *transduction
220. F factor plasmids play a major role in what bacterial process?
A. transduction
B. replication
C. transformation
D. reparation
E. *conjugation
221. This type of plasmid makes the host more pathogenic:
A. metabolic plasmid
B. F factors
C. R factor
D. F plasmid
E. *virulence plasmid
222. This type of plasmid carries genes encoding enzymes that degrade substances such as aromatic compounds, pesticides or sugar:
A. virulence plasmid
B. F factors
C. R factor
D. Hly plasmid
E. *metabolic plasmid
223. Mobile genetic elements that carry the genes required for integration into host chromosomes:
A. plasmids
B. replicon
C. F factors
D. Hly plasmid
E. *transposons
224. Which of the following are true in regards to F+ x F- cooperation?
A. DNA is transferred from F- to F+ cells
B. No DNA is transferred because F- cells are unable to perform conjugation
C. F+ transmit to F- cells information about toxin production
D. DNA is transferred from F+ to F- cells only in death phase of growth curve of bacteria
E. *DNA is transferred from F+ to F- cells
225. A bacterial cell that is able to take up naked DNA is said to be
A. liable
B. infected
C. sensitive
D. resistent
E. *competent
226. In which type of transduction does the transducing particle carry only specific portions of the bacterial genome?
A. general transduction
B. abortive transduction
C. reverse transduction
D. incomplete transduction
E. *specialized transduction
227. These are bacterial proteins that destroy other bacteria:
A. viruses
B. transposable elements
C. в-lactamaze
D. exotoxin
E. *bacteriocins
228. Which of the following processes contribute to the appearance of mutations in genes?
A. Chemicals that damage bases.
B. Mistakes made by the DNA polymerase during replication.
C. Movement of transposons around the genome.
D. Formation of deletions in directly repeated DNA sequences.
E. *All of the above.
229. Which of the following is/are genotypic, not phenotypic, properties?
A. Aerotolerance
B. Spore formation.
C. Cellular staining characteristics in the light microscope.
D. Colony morphology.
E. *Changing of Chromosomal content of bacterial species.
230. Transformation is important in bacterial pathogenicity because:
A. It kills recipient cells and prevents future cell invasion.
B. It enhances site-specific recombination that turns on virulence factor genes.
C. It causes transpositions to occur at high frequency that can kill virulent bacteria.
D. It activates production of enzymes of resistant to antibiotics
E. *It allows uptake of DNA that can homologously recombine into the bacterial chromosome and change virulence characteristics.
231. Which of the following processes allow(s) the transfer of bacterial DNA between different individual cells:
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Generalized transduction
D. None of the above
E. *All of the listed answers
232. Transformation is the genetic process by which:
A. Bacteriophage attach to bacterial cells.
B. Bacterial genes acquire mutations and variants.
C. Bacterial DNA is carried by bacteriophage between different bacteria.
D. None of the above.
E. *Pieces of free DNA or free plasmids are taken up by bacterial cells.
233. Targeting antibiotic therapy against the peptidoglycan cell wall of bacteria is advantageous because the wall is:
A. chemically vulnerable
B. mechanically accessible
C. synthetically complex
D. None of the above
E. *unique to the bacterium
234. Which of the following drug interferes with folic acid synthesis?
A. Aminoglycosides (or tetracyclines, erythromycin, clindamycin)
B. Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin)
C. Rifampin
D. Penicillins
235. Which antibiotics can damage cell wall?
A. tetracyclines
B. erythromycins
C. aminoglycosides
D. Polymixins
E. *Penicillins
236. Bacterial pili are involved in:
A. Motility
B. Resistance to heat
C. Resistance to phagocytosis
D. Endotoxic activity
E. *Adherence to host cells.
237. Which of the following properties are shared by prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A. Ribosome size
B. Peptidoglycan layer
C. Mitochondria structure and function
D. Nuclear envelope
E. *Chemical nature of genetic material
238. Which structure is found in all bacteria?
A. Capsular polysaccharide
B. Flagella
C. Pili
D. Outer membrane
E. *Cytoplasmic membrane
239. Lysozyme produced by humans and other mammalian hosts:
A. Inhibits the addition of amino acids to NAG.
B. Disrupts the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria.
C. Destroys lipopolysaccharide.
D. Results in a sterile environment in the mouth.
E. *Cleaves peptidoglycan between N-acetyl-glucosamine (NAG) and N-acetyl- muramic acid (NAM) residues.
240. The lipopolysaccharide found in Gram-negative bacteria IS NOT composed of:
A. lipid A
B. core polysaccharide
C. O-antigen
D. Any of the above
E. *peptidoglycan
241. The Gram-positive and Gram-negative cell walls generally differ in that the Gram-positives exclusively possess:
A. carbohydrates
B. peptides
C. lipid
D. none of the above
E. *teichoic acids
242. Point the most important feature of all prokaryotes:
A. produce endospores.
B. possess ribosomes identical to those of eukaryotes.
C. have inner and outer membranes.
D. have cell walls.
E. *lack mitochondria.
243. Microorganisms capable of producing endospores include:
A. Escherichia species
B. Bacterium species
C. Leptospirae
D. Staphylococci
E. *Clostridium species
244. Endospore formation is a property of:
A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E. *Clostridium botulinum
245. Resistance to many antibiotics is carried on:
A. sex pili.
B. enzymes
C. chromosomes
D. Col factor plasmids.
E. *R factor plasmids.
246. Thymine dimer formation is the result of exposing DNA to:
A. base analogs
B. transposons
C. X-rays
D. intercalating agents
E. *ultraviolet light
247. An organism which requires a growth factor in order to grow is called a(n):
A. prototroph
B. wild type
C. autotroph
D. heterotroph
E. *auxotroph
248. Which of the following processes does not result in recombination?
A. transformation
B. conjugation
C. transduction
D. Two of the above are correct.
E. *replication
249. Which one of the following agents lacks nucleic acid?
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Viroids
D. Protozoa
E. *Prions
250. Which one of the following agents simultaneously contains both DNA and RNA?
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