CVs & RH. Fever

1- all of the following could be manifestation of large VSD Except:

a- feeding difficulties.

b- Poor growth.

c- Cardiomegally.

d- Recurrent chest infection.

e- Absent femoral pulse.

2- Teratology fallot consists of all of the following Except:

a- pulmonary stensie.

b- Ventricular sephal defect.

c- Aortic coarctation

d- Rt. Ventricular hypertrophy.

e- over-riding aorta.

3- Which of the following is not characteristic of cyanotic heart disease:

a- Elevated blood pressure in arms.

b- Polycythemia.

c- Digital clubbing.

d- Dyspnea on exertion.

e- Limited exercise tolerance.

4- Clinical manifestations of rheumatic fever include all of the following Except:

a- fever, usually present in early stage.

b- Arthritis characteristically involves small joints and painless.

c- Carditis occurs in about 40% of patients.

d- Erythemia morginatum in the associated skin rash.

e- Chorea.

5- The white strawberry tongue is associated with:

a- Scarlet fever.

b- Varicella.

c- Rubella.

d- Rubeolla

e- Diphteria.

6- Each of the following may be a common manifestations of mumps Except:

a- orchilis.

b- Pancreatitis.

c- Parotitis.

d- Bilateral arthritis.

e- Asception meningitis.

7- Teratology of fallot is characterized by all Except:

a- obstruction of RH. Out flow.

b- VSD.

c- Dextroposition of Aorta.

d- Rt. Ventricular hypertrophy.

e- Osticm secundum defect.

8- All of the following are regarded as major manifestations of rheumatic fever Except of:

a- Carditis.

b- Prolonged P-R interval.

c- Erythema marginatum.

d- Subcutaneous nodules.

e- Chorea.

9- Which are of the following finding is commonly seen in patient with Rt. to left shunt:

a- cyanosis.

b- Clubbing of the fingers and toes.

c- Seundery polylythemia.

d- All of the above.

e- Non of the above.

10- Which of the following is not a clinical feature or recognized complication of Tetra-logy of fallot:

a- Anoxic Spells.

b- Brain abscens.

c- Congestive heart failure.

d- Cyanosis.

e- Poor growth.

11- A child who skips, name four color and dresses and undresses is how old:

a- 15 months.

b- 24 months.

c- 30 months.

d- 18 months.

e- 60 months.

12- The ability to manipulate a small objects with the pincer grasp is usually noted at what age?

a- 0-2 months.

b- 3-5 months.

c- 6-7 months.

d- 8-9 months.

e- 10-12 months.

13- A developmentally normal child who is just able to sit without support, transfer objects from hand to hand, and speak in monosyllabic babble, is probably what age:

a- 3 months.

b- 4 months.

c- 9 months.

d- 6 months.

e- 11 months.

14- Neurological, intellectual, and physical development in infants and children occur in an orderly and sequential manner. Al the following are integers of developmental milestones Except:

a- gross motor.

b- Fire motor.

c- Bone age.

d- Language.

e- Social.

15- Child at 12 months of age can do all of the following Except:

a- Say baba and mama.

b- Can walk with or without support.

c- Copy circle.

d- Move bye-bye.

e- Play simple ball game.

16- A 4 month old infant can:

a- hold her head reasonably steady in sitting position.

b- Site a lone without support.

c- Say mama and dada but in discriminately.

d- Sam mama and dada appropriately.

e- Point to object that she wants.

17- A6 month old infant differs from a 3 months old in regard to his or her ability to:

a- control bowel and bladder.

b- Crawl

c- Sit or almost sit, without support.

d- Simile socially.

e- Walk holding an to furniture.

18- Most infant loss weight immediately after birth, normal term infants generally regain their birth, weight by:

a- 24 hours.

b- 48 hours.

c- 72 hours.

d- 3-5 days.

e- 7-10 days.

19- At birth, the skull "Cranium":

a- Is larger than the face.

b- Is smaller than the face.

c- Cranium and face are equal in size.

d- May be larger or smaller than the face.

e- Is usually flattened anteriorly.

20- A weight gain of about 1.2kg during the first 3 months of life is:

a- About average.

b- Above average but within normal limits.

c- Below average but within normal limits.

d- Below average and probably abnormal.

e- Above average and probably abnormal.

21- The anterior fontanel usually feels closed on physical examination "palpation":

a- by 3 months.

b- Between 3 and 9 months.

c- Between 9 and 18 months.

d- Between 18 and 24 months.

e- Between 24 and 36 months.

22- During the first years of life on infant who weighted (3.4kg) at birth ordinarily would gain about:

a- 2.3kg.

b- 4.5kg.

c- 6.8kg.

d- 9kg.

e- 11.4kg.

23- During the second year of life, the average weight gain is about:

a- 1.5kg.

b- 3kg.

c- 5kg.

d- 8kg.

e- 12kg.

24- During the first year of life, the average gain in body length is about:

a- 12.7cm.

b- 25cm

c- 38cm

d- 51cm

e- 64cm.

25- The normal average of hemoglobin concentration of I year of age is about:

a- 17mg/dl.

b- 15mg/dl

c- 12mg/dl

d- 10mg/dl

e- 8mg/dl

26- The average head circumference of a term infant at birth is about:

a- 25cm

b- 30cm

c- 35cm

d- 40cm

e- 50cm

27- During the first month of life, head circumference grows about:

a- ½ cm

b- 1.2cm

c- 2.5cm

d- 5cm

e- 7.5cm

28- The average growth in head circumference during the first year of life is about:

a- 4cm

b- 12cm

c- 25cm

d- 37cm

e- 50cm

29- During the second year of life the average gain in body length is about:

a- 12 to 15cm.

b- 20 to 25cm.

c- 30 to 40cm.

d- 40 to 50cm.

e- Over 50cm.

30- One year old child would be able to do all of the following Except:

a- build a tower of three cubes.

b- Grasp a pellet

c- Reach for an object

d- Stand a lone

e- Transferee an object from hand to hand.

31- By age of two years the child can speak:

a- 3 word sentences.

b- Four word sentences.

c- Five word sentences.

d- Pronoun I and you.

e- Six word sentences.

32- A child can hop-on-and foot by age of:

a- one year.

b- Two year.

c- One year and half.

d- Two years and half.

e- Four years.

33- A child triple their birth weight by age of:

a- one year.

b- Two year.

c- Sex months.

d- Three months.

e- Nine months.

Rickets

1- Craniotabes could be seen in all of the following condition Except:

a- Rickets.

b- Vitamin E deficiency.

c- Hydrocephalus.

d- Syphilis.

e- Premature baby.

2- Physical features of vitamin D-deficient rickets included all of the following Except:

a- Bitot Spots.

b- Craniotabes.

c- Enlagement of the costochondral junction.

d- Thickening of the ankles and wrists.

e- Large anterin fontranell.

f- Bowed legs.

3- All of the following are true about the clinical manifestations of kwashiorkor Except:

a- the presence of edema.

b- Rash in sun exposed area.

c- Hair changes.

d- Weak muscles.

e- An increased susceptibility to infection.

4- The recommended daily dietary allowance of vitamin D per young infant is:

a- 100 I.U

b- 400 I.U

c- 800 I.U

d- 1600 I.U.

e- 4000 I.U.

5- Which of the following Vitamin are Fat soluble:

a- A, D and C.

b- D, K and B₁

c- A, D, K and E.

d- C, D, K and E

e- B₁, K and E.

6- Supplementation with which of the following Vitamins is most important for an exclusively breast feed infant:

a- Vitamin A

b- Vitamin E

c- Vitamin C

d- Vitamin B₁

e- Vitamin D

7- All of the following are clinical signs of rickets Except:

a- Craniotabes.

b- Enlargement of the costochordral junction.

c- Thickening of wrists and ankles.

d- Poor growth.

e- Conjunctivitis.

8- Which of the following statement concerning Vitamin D metabolism is false:

a- it is Activated to cholecalciferol in the skin.

b- It requires bile for absorption.

c- The kidney is active in its metabolism.

d- It circulates in plasma as 25OH cholecalciferol.

e- It is stored in the liver but not metabolized there.

9- In the absence of Vitamin D, Serum calcium may be maintained by:

a- Parathyroid hormone secretion.

b- Decreased renal excretion of phosphate.

c- Small dietary increases.

d- Decreased renal excretion of alkali.

e- Increased amounts of Vitamin A in diet.

10- Clinical disorders associated with increased incidence of Vitamin D deficiency include all of the following Except:

a- cystic fibrosis.

b- Hepatic disease.

c- Celiac disease.

d- Chronic anticonvulsant therapy.

e- Obesity.

11- Rickets may be treated by all of the following Except:

a- 1500 to 5000 I.U of Vitamin D daily for 2 to 4 weeks.

b- Sun light plus 1500-5000 I.U of Vitamin D daily until heading demonstrated on x-ray.

c- Sun lights.

d- 6000 I.U of Vitamin D as single dose.

e- ↑Ca^{+2 in diet and ↓phosphate.}

12- In infant rickets all of the following is correct Except:

a- craniotabes is an early finding.

b- Serum calcium is usually normal.

c- Muscle are a atrophied.

d- Low serum phosphoric.

e- Rosary.

13- All of the following are regarding Vitamin D Except:

a- the required prophylactic dose is 400I.U one day.

b- Vitamin D is metabolized in liver and kidney.

c- Causes muscle weakness when deficient.

d- Causes limb pain when deficient.

e- Excessive dose is safe.

14- a 4 month old with Vitamin D-deficient rickets. Would be expected to show all of the following Except:

a- Craniotabes.

b- Bow Legs.

c- Rosary.

d- Low Serum phosphate level.

e- High Alkaline phosphatase level

Nephrology

1- All of the following are consistent with the diagnosis of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome of child hood Except:

a- Onset is usually between 2 and 6 years of age.

b- Pathologic renal changes are minimal by light microscopy.

c- C₃ level is depressed.

d- Hypertension is unusual.

e- Hyperlipidemea.

2- In nephrotic syndrome all of the following is correct Except:

a- Edema is massive.

b- Ascites may be present.

c- Total serum globulin is diminished.

d- massive proteinuria.

e- Steroid are the drug of choice for treated.

3- In acute post streptococcal nephritis all of the following is correct Except:

a- Smoky urine.

b- Usually present with massive edema.

c- Specific gravity of urine is high.

d- Hypertension.

e- Penicillin may be of value in patient management.

4- Concerning urinary tract infection in children all of the following is correct Except:

a- Usually diagnosed if you find baeilliuria of 10000/mm² or more.

b- Initial symptoms may be systemic (fever, abdominal pain).

c- Treatment should be continued for at least 2 week.

d- Found smelling is not a common presenting complaint.

e- Common causative organism are gran –ve organism.

5- All of the following statement are correct about routine urine examination, Except:

a- Specific gravity of 1015 is normal.

b- Red blood cell cast is normal finding.

c- One red blood cell is normal finding.

d- One white blood cell is normal finding.

e- Negative sugar is normal finding.

6- Of the following, the most reliable for the diagnosis of urinary tract infection:

a- Fever and loin pain.

b- A numerous WBCs in the urine analysis.

c- Bacteria seen in the urine analysis.

d- The presence of a single isolated of < 10⁵ /ml colory in urine.

e- Dysuria and frequency.

7- A child with chronic renal failure is expected to develop all of the following Except:

a- Abnormal linear growth.

b- Hypophosphatemia.

c- Hypertension.

d- Hyperkalemia.

e- Rickets.

8- In minimal lesion nephrotic syndrome all are true Except:

a- There is proteinuria without gross hematuria.

b- Serum BUN and Creatinine are normal.

c- Ascites could be present.

d- Hypertension is constant finding.

e- Hepatomegally may be present.

9- Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by:

a- Proteinuria.

b- Hypoproteinemia.

c- Edema.

d- Hyperlipidemia.

e- All of the above.

10- Minimal change nephrotic syndrome is characterized by the following Except:

a- Edema.

b- Albuminurea.

c- Hypercholestrolemia.

d- Hypoproteinemia.

e- Hypertension.

11- Classical acute nephritis in children, characterized by all of following Except:

a- Hypertension.

b- Macroscopic hematuria.

c- Follows streptococcal infection.

d- Necessitates fluid restriction.

e- Corticosteroid are the first line of therapy.

12- Proteinuria is usually found in all of the following Except:

a- Nephrotic syndrome.

b- Iron deficiency anemia.

c- Acute glomonal nephritis.

d- Renal tumor.

e- Orthostatic.

13- The commonest cause of nephritis syndrome in child (3) years old is:

a- Idiopathic.

b- B-streptococcal group A infection.

c- System lupus erythematous.

d- Insulin dependent diabetic mellitus.

e- Urinary tract infection.

14- which are of the following statements regarding hematuria is not

true

a- If casts are present, the source of hematuria must be the kidney.

b- Bright red urine that clots usually suggests renal, or upper

urinary tract source of bleeding.

c- The addition finding of proteinuria usually suggests a renal

source.

d- The most common neoplasm associated with hematuria is

wilm's tumor.

e- It can be a cause of anemia.

15- Which of the following statement is true of post streptococcal glomerulonephortic:

a- More than 10% of children develop chronic renal failure.

b- Hypertensive encephalopathy is recognized complication

c- ASO Titer is not useful marker of streptococcal infection.

d- Life long penicillin prophylactic is recommended.

e- Abnormalities of serum complement usually persist for more than 3 months.

16- Post streptococcal acute glamerulonephritis is associated with all of the following Except:

a- oliguriea..

b- fall in C₃ level.

c- Granular and red cell cast.

d- Smoky urine.

e- Polyurea.

Дата добавления: 2015-10-30