D - Sufficient agitation

Question 1:
What happens when the pressure in the tank, or the feed line from the tank, builds to 24.9 Pa above atmospheric and the pressure is applied to the control line at the diaphragm of the wet gas regulator in a vapour recovery unit?

A - Dry gas regulator opens and the compressor starts sending dry gas into the tank.
B - Wet gas regulator opens and the compressor starts pulling dry gas from the tank.
C - Dry gas regulator opens and the compressor starts sending wet gas into the tank.
D - Wet gas regulator opens and the compressor starts pulling wet gas from the tank.
_______________________________________________

Question 2:
In a typical atmospheric battery system, the emulsion is subjected to relatively high temperatures (75 °C range) in the first treating tank, and a good deal of gas still entrained in the emulsion flashes off. For this reason, the first tank in the train is equipped with a gas collection dome that is piped to a/an:

A - Firetube
B - Vapour recovery unit
C - Recycle pump
D - Adjustable weir nipple
_______________________________________________

Question 3:
In sour gas systems, when air is allowed to enter a storage or treating tank, the gas can act as a drying agent. What may happen if the top of the tank is allowed to dry in a tank that is nearly full?

A - Hydrogen sulphide could reach a maximum operating pressure of 3.45 kPa (0.5 psi)
B - Iron sulphide on the inside could spontaneously ignite
C - Iron sulphide on the inside could cause scaling
D - Hydrogen sulphide could settle to the bottom of the tank

_______________________________________________

Question 4:
The explosive range of H₂S in air is:

A - 4.9% to 15%
B - 2.1% to 10.1%
C - 4.3% to 45.5%
D - 2.5% to 81%
_______________________________________________

Question 5:
In the first tank, most of the free water is broken out of the production stream and settles to the bottom of the tank. The remainder of the emulsion rises and is heated by the:

A - Reboiler
B - Upper heat exchanger
C - Lower firetube
D - Upper firetube
_______________________________________________

Question 6:
A tank vent valve assembly is required for a/an:

A - Compressor shutdown
B - Upset due to a malfunction of the upstream equipment
C - Failure or freeze-off of the regulators
D - All of the above
_______________________________________________

Question 7:
After the feed stream from the field enters the system at the inlet separator and most of the solution gas has been removed, demulsifier chemicals are added and the entire stream passes through the mixer on the way to the free water knockout. To enhance the breakout process, this unit is equipped with:

A - Firetubes
B - Distillate coolers
C - Hot glycol heating coils
D - A battery flare system

_______________________________________________

Question 8:
Producers of heavy and ultra heavy crude oils enhance the treating process at their sites by adding:

A - 50% by volume of diluent to the inlet production stream
B - Condensate with a Reid Vapour Pressure greater than 101.36 kPa (14.7 psi) as a diluent to the inlet production stream
C - Stabilized condensate as a diluent to the inlet production streams
D - Lightweight oil as a diluent to the inlet production streams
_______________________________________________

Question 9:
In an advanced ultraheavy oil treating system, a free water knock out can be used upstream of the emulsion breaking unit only if the knock out can handle solids and the water content of the production stream is reduced to:

A - 5% or less
B - 15% or less
C - 7.5% or less
D - 10% or less
_______________________________________________

Question 10:
The lease automatic custody transfer unit usually includes a B.S. & W. monitor that shuts down the pipeline pump if the sales oil contains more than:
A - 0.05% B.S.& W.
B - 0.5% B.S.& W.
C - 5% B.S.& W.
D - 0.15% B.S.& W.

_______________________________________________

Question 11:
The explosive range of straight methane in air is:

A - 2.5% to 81%
B - 4.9% to 15%
C - 4.3% to 45.5%
D - 2.1% to 10.1%
_______________________________________________

Question 12:
If air is allowed to enter the storage or treating tank in a sour system, the air will act as a drying agent. If the exposure time is long enough, it may dry the top of the tank to the point that:

A - Methane could accumulate at the top of the tank
B - The condensate could become unstable
C - Iron sulphide on the outside could spontaneously ignite
D - Iron sulphide on the inside could spontaneously ignite
_______________________________________________

Question 13:
Ultra-heavy crudes are those oils that have a relative density near 1.0 and an API gravity of less than:

A - 15°
B - 20°
C - 16°
D - 14°
_______________________________________________

Question 14:
Welded treating tanks used for atmospheric batteries:

A - Should be constructed to the API 650 standard
B - May require an epoxy internal coating to retard corrosion
C - Are insulated with polyurethane foam
D - All of the above
_______________________________________________

Question 15:
A cool-down tank may be necessary in a system where the oil going to the sales tank is in excess of:

A - 70°C
B - 60°C
C - 45°C
D - 55°C
_______________________________________________

Question 16:

Spreader bars are used in the settling tanks of an atmospheric battery system to:

A - Reduce turbulence and enhance the settling process
B - Increase turbulence, which enhances the settling process
C - Prevent spreading of the emulsion out over the cross-section of the tank
D - Increase channelling
_______________________________________________

Question 17:
In a balanced vapour recovery system, the output regulator and the makeup regulator must be designed to work in:

A - Series
B - Opposition
C - Unison
D - Alternating cycles

_______________________________________________

Question 18:
The vapour recovery compressor unit should be equipped with the proper safety devices and control panel. To protect it from liquid slugs, the compressor should be equipped with:

A - Scrubbers
B - Slug catchers
C - Vent panels
D - Condensers
_______________________________________________

Question 19:
Once the emulsion stream is dumped from the free water knock out, it passes to the evaporator. This unit usually operates at temperatures between:

A - 115°C and 120°C
B - 125°C and 130°C
C - 110°C and 115°C
D - 105°C and 110°C

_______________________________________________

Question 20:
What happens when the pressure in the tank or the feed line drops 24.9 Pa below atmospheric and a vacuum is applied to the control line at the diaphragm of the dry gas regulator in a vapour recovery unit?

A - The dry gas regulator opens and re-pressurizes the tank with wet gas
B - The dry gas regulator opens and the compressor starts sending dry gas into the tank
C - The dry gas regulator opens and re-pressurizes the tank with clean, dry, sweet gas.
D - The dry gas regulator opens and the compressor starts pulling wet gas into the tank
______________________________________________

Question 21:
Producers of heavy and ultraheavy crude oils enhance the treating process at their sites by adding light-weight oil as a diluent to the inlet production streams.

A - True

B - False

_______________________________________________

Question 1:

The starting and stopping of transferring of oil may be initiated by:
A - Level controls on the provider’s storage tank
B - Scheduled by the pipeline company from a master computer
C - The B.S. & W. probe
D - Both a and b
_______________________________________________
Question 2:

Identify part C of LACT Unit sample container in the illustration below:

A - Sample Container
B - Back pressure valve
C - Sampler
D – Pump

_______________________________________________
Question 3:

The master meter is:
A - One whose accuracy has been previously proven
B - The first meter in the system against whose readings all other meter are registered
C - The meter to which the chart recorder is connected
D - The main meter on the pipeline

_______________________________________________
Question 4:

Oil that is in the stock tanks on a producing lease is owned by the:
A - Producer
B - Refinery
C - Customer
D - Pipeline company
_______________________________________________
Question 5:

If the sales oil does not meet the sales contract specifications:
A - It is of no concern to the producer
B - The transfer is automatically stopped
C - Transfer continues for a pre-determined time period
D - The operator must stop the transfer
_______________________________________________
Question 6:

A typical LACT unit includes a three-way valve that is used to:
A - Deliver clean oil to the producer's stock tank or oil treater
B - Provide a means proving of the accuracy of the meter
C - Divert dirty oil back to the producer's stock tank or oil treater
D - Provide a means of collecting a representative sample of oil throughout the delivery
_______________________________________________
Question 7:

In drawing a sample, the circulating pump is started and the four-way valve on the discharge of the sample pump is set to circulate the oil in the container. Why?
A - To prove the master meter
B - To determine the exact value of the oil
C - To ensure that no sediment or water can settle out in the container
D - To allow for proper air and gas emulsification
_______________________________________________

Question 8:

The bottom of the sample container tank is sloped so that:
A - The oil will not stick to the surface
B - Water and sediment from the oil can settle out
C - Water and sediment from the oil cannot settle out
D - Vapours cannot flash out of the tank
_______________________________________________
Question 9:

Once the LACT unit's charge pump has started the oil flows through the filter to remove any foreign matter that could damage equipment in the LACT unit. The instrument that is used to indicate when the filter must be cleaned is called a:
A - Sludge accumulator
B - Pressure indicator
C - Volume gauge
D - Sediment and water probe
_______________________________________________

Question 10:

Because the Alberta provincial government collects royalties on oil that is produced, the ______________ of all meters must meet government approval.
A - capacity
B - accuracy
C - location
D - none of the above
_______________________________________________
Question 11:

As soon as oil is flowing to the pipeline, the sampler is started. Usually a sample is drawn:
A - Each barrel of oil
_______________________________________________
Question 12:

When the samples have been drawn, the four-way valve is turned to pump the oil from the container back to the:
A - Producer's stock tank
B - Suction of the circulating pump
C - Outlet of the charge pump
D - Suction of the charge pump

_______________________________________________
Question 13:

Which of the following factors affect the price paid for the oil?
A - The gravity or relative density of the oil
B - The time the oil is sold
C - The temperature of the oil
D - All of the above
_______________________________________________
Question 14:

The device that is used to measure the dielectric constant (capacitance) of the stream is called a:
A - Volume gauge
B - Pressure indicator
C - Sludge accumulator
D - Sediment and water probe
_______________________________________________

Question 15:

A typical LACT unit includes all of the following components except a:
A - Large pump for transferring the oil
B - Compressor for instrument air supply
C - Meter to accurately measure the volume of oil
D - Thermometer well for a temperature recorder

_______________________________________________
Question 16:

A prover tank is shaped in such a way that gas pockets are trapped in it, thus giving a true indication of total hydrocarbon volume.
A - True
B – False
_______________________________________________
Question 17:
The purpose of the LACT unit is to transfer the custody of the oil from the ________________ to the ________________ company.
A - refinery, customer
B - pipeline, producer
C - producer, customer
D - producer, pipeline
_______________________________________________
Question 18:

Why is a LACT unit equipped with a 3-way valve?
A - To divert dirty oil back to the producer's stock tank or oil treater
B - To accurately measure the volume of oil
C - To prove the accuracy of the meter
D - To monitor the water content of the oil
_______________________________________________

Question 19:

Once the oil has entered the pipeline system, it is owned by the:
A - Refinery
B - Drilling company
C - Pipeline company
D - Customer

_______________________________________________

Question 1:
Water in residue gas can cause which of the following transmission difficulties?

A - The formation of hydrates resulting in plugging the lines and pressure control devices
B - Corrosion in pipelines
C - Accumulate at low points reducing the flow capacity of the lines
D - All of the above
_______________________________________________

Question 2:
Gas dehydration is the process which:

A - Removes sufficient water vapour to lower water dew point
B - Removes hydrates
C - Removes all water vapour from a gas stream
D - Removes all water and hydrocarbon vapours
_______________________________________________

Question 3:
When using a dewpoint tester, the hydrocarbon dewpoint is indicated by:

A - The formation of a large white spot with a blue tint around the outside
B - The formation of the first observable droplets of liquid
C - The formation of a light grey spot in the centre of the mirror
D - The formation of a light haze that covers the entire mirror

_______________________________________________

Question 4:
An electrolytic hygrometer:

A - Consists of a thin walled, metal tube covered with woven glass cloth impregnated with lithium chloride salt connected to a 25 V AC power supply
B - Consists of a lithium chloride cell and two platinum wire windings connected to a power supply of a few AC volts
C - Consists of a potassium phosphate cell and two platinum wire windings connected to a power supply of a few AC volts
D - Consists of a thin walled, metal tube covered with woven glass cloth impregnated with lithium bromide salt connected to a 25 V AC power supply
_______________________________________________

Question 5:
Produced water is introduced into a natural gas stream from which source?

A - As the gas flows through pipelines
B - Gas sweetening process
C - Injected to remove salts from the gas
D - Gas reservoir
_______________________________________________

Question 6:

To convert MMSCF to10³m³:

A - Add 28.3179
B - Multiply by 6.895
C - Divide by 28.3179
D - Multiply by 28.3179
_______________________________________________

Question 7:
The gas dehydration process is normally performed after the sweetening process because:

A - The use of line heaters in the sweetening process elevates the gas temperature above the level where hydrates form, therefore reducing the effectiveness of dehydration
B - Most of the sweetening processes are water-based and the gas will pick up additional water
C - An accurate dew point temperature cannot be achieved before the sweetening process
D - All of the above
_______________________________________________

Question 8:
When using a dew point tester, the temperature of the sampling line and dew point tester must be below the flowing temperature of the gas line.
A - True
B - False
_______________________________________________

Question 9:
Electrolytic hygrometers are accurate and simple, but very expensive.

A - True
B - False
_______________________________________________

Question 10:
When operating a dew point tester it is critical to maintain full service ____________ across the tester:

A - flow
B - temperature
C - pressure
D - temperature and pressure
_______________________________________________
Question 11:
A dehydration process is operating at 600 psi and -10 degrees F. Using the chart, the outlet gas stream will contain a maximum water content of:

A - 1 lb per MMSCF
B - 2 lbs per MMSCF
C - 4 lbs per MMSCF
D - 6 lbs per MMSCF
_______________________________________________

Question 12:
When using a dewpoint tester, the water dewpoint is indicated by:

A - The formation of a light grey spot in the centre of the mirror
B - The formation of large white spot with a blue tint around the outside
C - The formation of the first observable droplets of liquid
D - The formation of a light haze that covers the entire mirror
_______________________________________________

Question 13:
The first stain observed on the dew point tester mirror may be:

A - A cloudy appearance in the centre of the mirror
B - Lubricating oil, or similar material
C - Concentric rings, starting from the centre of the mirror
D - An iridescent blue or red, or a blotchy pattern of blue
_______________________________________________

Question 14:
The water content of the inlet gas must be reduced and controlled before transmission to a level:

A - Of 0.064 grams of water per cubic meter of gas
B - That meets the design limits of the dehydration equipment in the plant
C - That meets the specification of the transmission contract
D - That creates a saturation temperature higher than any temperature along the transmission line
_______________________________________________

Question 15:
Dew point depression expresses the extent to which water vapour content in gas has been:

A - Reduced at increased pressure
B - Increased as it passes through the sweetening process
C - Reduced at constant pressure
D - Increased at constant pressure
_______________________________________________

Question 16:
A dew point tester is used to determine the temperatre at which:

A - Hydrates may form
B - Water condenses from a gas stream
C - Hydrocarbons condense from a gas
D - Both b and c
_______________________________________________

Question 17:
When using a dewpoint tester:

A - There can be no appreciable reduction in pressure between the gas source and the dew point tester
B - Partial line pressure must be used
C - The temperature of the dew point tester and the sample line must be below the flowing temperature of the gas line
D - Cool the mirror chamber at approximately 3 to 4 degrees C per minute
_______________________________________________
Question 18:

Dew point (Dewcell) recorders:
A - Are accurate and simple
B - Consume very little power
C - Have no critical adjustments
D - All of the above

_______________________________________________

Question 1:
The primary cause of foaming in glycol dehydration systems is:

A - High water content in lean glycol
B - Hydrocarbon contamination
C - Low pH of glycol
D - Chloride contamination
_______________________________________________

Question 2:
The inlet scrubbers used in glycol dehydration systems are equipped with baffles and mist extractors that are designed to:

A - Provide the intimate contact between the gas stream and the glycol solution
B - Remove the water from the rich glycol and reactivate the glycol for reuse
C - Eliminate gas turbulence and increase efficiency
D - Encourage gas turbulence causing increased separation of gases and liquids
_______________________________________________

Question 3:
In a glycol dehydration system, the wet gas flows _______ through the contactor, ______ to the glycol flow.

A - downward, countercurrent
B - upward, concurrent
C - downward, concurrent
D - upward, countercurrent
_______________________________________________

Question 4:
Most of the corrosion in the rectifier of a glycol dehydration unit occurs:

A - Immediately below the feed tray
B - To a lesser extent with DEG than with TEG
C - In the top of the feed tray
D - In the bottom of the feed tray
_______________________________________________

Question 5:
Glycol dehydration systems that do not have glycol flash tanks are more prone to corrosion due to:

A - Un-removed acid gases depressing pH
B - Hydrocarbon flashing in the rectifier
C - Build-up of solids in the system
D - Greater foaming tendencies
_______________________________________________

Question 6:
Glycols are difficult liquids to contain and to pump. If not handled properly, the liquid leaks around packing and spreads around the entire pump area. The leak problem can be overcome by:

A - Providing a drainage trough around the pump leading to a central sump, from which the glycol can be gathered
B - Opening the motor valve wider until the pressure drop is across the filter instead of the motor valve
C - Heating the glycol solution upstream of the pumps, increasing its volume and lowering the pump pressure requirements
D - All of the above
_______________________________________________

Question 7:
The amount of heat transferred to the glycol solution in the regenerator is dictated by:

A - Dewpoint depression required
B - Strength of reconcentrated solution
C - Column operating pressure
D - All of the above
_______________________________________________

Question 8:
In a glycol dehydration system a vent tank can be installed:

A - Upstream of the absorber
B - Downstream of the filters
C - Downstream of the absorber
D - Upstream of the inlet scrubber
_______________________________________________

Question 9:
The absorber in a glycol dehydration system provides a series of contacts for removing water from the wet gas as it flows:

A - Downwards, in contact with the concentrated glycol
B - Downwards as the glycol moves upwards
C - Upwards, in contact with the concentrated glycol
D - None of the above
_______________________________________________

Question 10:
In a glycol dehydration system, the glycol flows ________ through the contactor ___________ to the wet gas flow.

A - upward, countercurrent
B - downward, countercurrent
C - upward, concurrent
D - downward, concurrent
_______________________________________________
Question 11:
The glycol dehydration system regenerator operating temperature is maintained by:

A - Heat supplied by a bottom reboiler
B - A closed water-cooled coil
C - Heat supplied by an overhead reboiler
D - None of the above
_______________________________________________

Question 12:
In a glycol dehydration system natural gasoline can be absorbed by the glycol which can be vapourized in the rectifier resulting in fires.

A - False
B - True
_______________________________________________

Question 13:
If light oils and condensate from the scrubber are carried into the absorber, of a glycol dehydration system they will find their way to the rectifier where they can:

A - Collapse the filter element
B - Flood the reboiler
C - Crush the packing in packed columns
D - Cause the filter to burst
_______________________________________________

Question 14:
Operating glycol reboilers at abnormally high temperatures will cause:

A - Glycol degradation
B - Foaming in the glycol regenerator
C - Excessive glycol losses
D - Corrosion in the regenerator
_______________________________________________

Question 15:
The removal of oxygen and all acid gases dissolved in the foul solution in the flash tank of a glycol dehydration system is accomplished by:

A - Raising the pressure of the stream and retaining it for a short period of time
B - Lowering the pressure of the stream and retaining it for a short period of time
C - Lowering the pressure of the stream and retaining it for a long period of time
D - Raising the pressure of the stream and retaining it for a long period of time
_______________________________________________
Question 16:
In order to avoid solids and degradation material deposition on the regenerator trays or reboiler tubes of a glycol regenerator, filters are installed:

A - Downstream of the pump
B - Downstream of the stripper
C - Upstream of the absorber
D - Upstream of the stripper
_______________________________________________

Question 17:
Glycol dehydration system rectifier corrosion can be minimized by the use of coatings, by keeping the system free of contaminants, and by:

A - Operating at a maximum temperature
B - Minimizing the time the glycol is subject to decomposition
C - Operating at a minimum temperature
D - Operating at a pressure above atmospheric
_______________________________________________

Question 18:
Packed glycol dehydration columns:

A - Offer the least contact area per cubic meter
B - Are utilized in plants that process small volumes of gas
C - Have a high pressure drop across the tower
D - Are ideal for handling large volumes of gas
_______________________________________________

Question 19:
Operating condition of the glycol filter in a dehydration system can be observed by:

A - Glycol foaming tendencies
B - Low filter outlet pressure
C - Pressure drop across filter
D - Glycol quality
______________________________________________

Question 20:

The reflux equipment in a glycol dehydration unit includes all of the following except a/an:

A - Reboiler
B - Accumulator
C - Pump
D - Condenser

Question 1:
The wastewater treatment system shown here is an example of a/an:

A - Closed system
B - Open system
C - Injection system
D - Cryogenic separation system
_______________________________________________

Question 2:
The wastewater treatment system that is the industry system of choice for wastewater that has not come into contact with the atmosphere and where economics are not a concern is the:

A - Cryogenic separation system
B - Injection system
C - Closed system
D - Open system
_______________________________________________
Question 3:
If wastewater contains non-carbonate hardness, soda ash may be added to the cold lime softening process for further hardness reduction.

A - True
B - False
_______________________________________________
Question 4:
Chemicals used to control bacteria in a wastewater disposal system:

A - Are not dangerous to personnel
B - Require proper training in regard to their handling
C - Require the use of the proper PPE when handled
D - Both b and c
_______________________________________________
Question 5:
The properties of wastewater should be considered when considering plans for water disposal. When the water contains bacteria, the result may be:

1. Scale formation

2. H₂S, O₂ and CO₂
3. Creation of emulsion blocks
4. Plugging in piping or in the formation
A - 1
B - 4
C - 2
D - 3
_______________________________________________
Question 6:
An indication that a wastewater injection well is plugged in the formation is a/an:

A - Decrease in the tubing pressure
B - Decrease in the casing (annulus) pressure
C - Increase in the casing (annulus) pressure
D - Increase in the tubing pressure
_______________________________________________
Question 7:
Wastewater injection wells must be checked on a regular basis for any problems that may arise. They must be checked for tubing and annular pressures. The annulus is the:

A - Space between the reservoir and the wellhead
B - Outside diameter of the casing
C - Inside diameter of the tubing
D - Space between the casing and the tubing
_______________________________________________
Question 8:
In cold lime softening, _________________ is added to the water.

A - calcium carbonate
B - carbon dioxide
C - magnesium hydroxide
D - calcium hydroxide
_______________________________________________
Question 9:
A wastewater system that is designed to completely exclude oxygen from the wastewater is known as a/an:

A - Closed system
B - Aerated system
C - Open system
D - Aerobic system
_______________________________________________
Question 10:
In a typical open wastewater treatment system, after the water has been fed through the gas contactor, it next flows to the:

A - Skim tank
B - Filters
C - Degasifier
D - Coagulation basin
_______________________________________________

Question 11:
When gas, oil, and water are trapped between two impervious formations, the formation pressure is produced by the "gas cap" above the oil. The force produced by the salt water below the oil is called the:

A - Hydrostatic head
B - Hygrometric head
C - Hydrometric head
D - Hydrochloric head
_______________________________________________

Question 12:
When wastewater is aerated prior to disposal, an oxygen free environment is created, which helps to limit or prevent the formation of sulphate reducing bacteria colonies.

A - True
B - False
_______________________________________________

Question 13:
The piece of wastewater treatment equipment seen here is called a:

A - Pressure Filter
B - Flotation Basin
C - Steam Ejector Vacuum Degasifier
D - Sedimentation Basin
_______________________________________________

Question 14:
The first step in any wastewater treatment program is the removal of oil from the water. If some of the oil remains suspended in the water after it passes through a skim tank, it may be necessary to use a:

A - Coagulation basin
B - Loose media coalescer
C - Degasifier
D - Baffle
_______________________________________________

Question 15:
"Water flooding" is a process used to move wastewater:

A - Into local industrial water supplies
B - Into a non-producing reservoir
C - Back into the same formation from which it came to maintain formation pressure
D - Into agricultural use as irrigation
_______________________________________________
Question 16:
A biocide:

A - Inhibits bacteria growth
B - Kills bacteria
C - Inhibits growth of bacteria and other forms of life
D - Kills many forms of life as well as bacteria
_______________________________________________

Question 17:
Some of the more common bacteria that cause problems in water treatment are:

A - Sulphate reducing bacteria
B - Iron bacteria
C - Slime producers
D - All of the above
_______________________________________________

Question 18:
The properties of wastewater should be considered when considering plans for water disposal. Any oil in the water will usually result in problems with the injection well because the oil may result in the formation of:

1. Emulsion blocks

2. H₂S, O₂ and CO₂
3. Slime Producers
4. Scale

A - 4
B - 1
C - 3
D - 2
_______________________________________________

Question 19:
What must be considered when planning to dispose of wastewater from one well by injecting it into a different formation?

A - Heat transfer from the surface to the injection well formation
B - Compatibility of the two water sources
C - Contamination of the formation from which the wastewater was produced
D - All of the above
_______________________________________________

Question 20:
Anaerobic bacteria:

A - Thrive in the absence or presence of oxygen
B - Require oxygen to thrive
C - Require brine to thrive
D - Thrive in the absence of oxygen
_______________________________________________

Question 21:
An indication that there may be and leak in the tubing string of a wastewater injection well is:

A - An increase in the casing pressure
B - A tubing pressure increase
C - A sudden decrease in both tubing and casing pressures
D - The pressure in the tubing and casing would not be affected
_______________________________________________
Question 22:
When in service the direction of wastewater flow through a pressure filter is:

A - Out through the drain
B - Discharged very slowly close to the oil-water interface
C - Up through the sand and gravel
D - Down through the sand and gravel
_______________________________________________

Question 23:
Why should corrosive wastewater not be disposed of in an injection well?

A - It may contain oil or gas-producing solids
B - The process could produce scales
C - The water contents could damage the well
D - Emulsion blocks could be formed
_______________________________________________

Question 24:
Corrosive gases can be removed from wastewater with a:

A - Loose media filter
B - Pressure filter
C - Gas exchange column
D - Skim tank

Question 1:
The type of pig to be used and its optimum configuration for a particular task in a pipeline should be determined based upon the following:

A - The contents of the pipeline
B - Pipeline characteristics
C - The purpose for which the pig is to be used
D - All of the above

_______________________________________________
Question 2:
Typically companies have in place a site specific pigging procedures section included in their Safe Procedures Manual.

A - True
B - False
_______________________________________________
Question 3:
When retrieving a pig, it is essential to operator safety that before opening the barrel, it must be depressured:

A - On both sides of the pig
B - At the isolation valve
C - On the upstream side of the pig only
D - On the downstream side of the pig only
_______________________________________________
Question 4:
The pig launcher component labeled B on the illustration is called the:

A - Trap isolation valve
B - Kicker valve
C - Drain valve
D - Bypass valve
_______________________________________________
Question 5:
Pigs that are used to remove solid or semi-solid deposits or debris from the pipeline are generally considered to be a type of:

A - Mapping pig
B - Utility pig
C - Gel pig
D - Smart pig
_______________________________________________
Question 6:
The pig launcher component labeled I on the illustration is called the:

A - Trap barrel
B - Closure
C - Main line
D - Reducer
_______________________________________________
Question 7:
The responsibilities of management in regard to pigging include:

A - Positioning warning signs on each and of the pipeline to identify the �critical areas�
B - Check that adequate test heads are being used and properly installed
C - Establishment of "critical" areas
D - Ensure that the proper pig is being used
_______________________________________________
Question 8:
When incorporating gel pigs into a pig train, care must be taken to:

A - Ensure that the electric charge being fed to the pig sets up the required magnetic field
B - Ensure a good seal between two dissimilar products within the pipeline is provided
C - Maximize fluid bypass of the pigs
D - Minimize fluid bypass of the pigs
_______________________________________________
Question 9:
The following protective mechanisms should be in place to help ensure worker safety:

A - Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
B - Barricades and warning signs
C - Work permit system
D - All of the above

_______________________________________________
Question 10:
The workers' responsibilities while pigging include:

A - Provide proper instruction on any protective requirements
B - Adhere to PPE policies
C - Establish 'critical' work areas
D - Facilitate proper training
_______________________________________________

Question 11:
When preparing to receive a pig, once the receiver is pressurized, the next step is to fully open the:
A - Trap closure
B - Bypass valve
C - Main valve
D - All of the above
_______________________________________________

Question 12:
When launching a pig in a liquid system, it is important to open the drain valve and allow air to displace the liquid by:

A - Closing the main valve
B - Closing the vent valve
C - Opening the vent valve
D - Equalizing pressure across the isolation valve
_______________________________________________

Question 13:
In order to safely load or retrieve a pig, it is critical that the pig barrels are properly isolated, _________, drained, and purged before they are opened.

A - identified
B - depressurized
C - pressurized
D - cleaned
_______________________________________________

Question 14:
The pig launcher component labeled C on the illustration is called the:

A - Drain valve
B - Vent valve
C - Bypass valve
D - Kicker valve

_______________________________________________

Question 15:
Cleaning pigs are:

A - Used to remove solid or semi-solid deposits or debris from the pipeline
B - Susceptible to dilution and gas cutting
C - Used to provide an interface between two dissimilar products within the pipeline
D - Used to establish the integrity of the pipe by detecting internal and external corrosion

Question 1:
The quality control manual heading that describes the control of calibration of measuring and test equipment is:

A - Definitions
B - Inspectors
C - Manual control
D - Measuring and test equipment
_______________________________________________

Question 2:
The replacement of parts during maintenance must be done with materials of:

A - Any specifications and pressure rating
B - The proper specifications and pressure rates
C - The lowest cost
D - Any quality that will reduce production losses
_______________________________________________

Question 3:
The acronym "API" stands for:
A - American Petroleum Institute
B - Alberta Production Institute
C - American Production Institute
D - Alberta Petroleum Institute
_______________________________________________

Question 4:
The component of a Quality Control Manual that identifies the specific jobs the quality control manual covers, the applicable codes and regulations, and the company that issued the manual is called the:

A - Title Page
B - Organizational chart
C - Revision Summary
D - Statement of Authority
_______________________________________________

Question 5:
The acronym "ASME" stands for:

A - Alberta Society of Mechanical Engineers
B - American Society of Mechanical Engineers
C - Alberta Society of Metallurgical Engineers
D - American Society of Metallurgical Engineers
_______________________________________________

Question 6:
Physical defects; test failures; incorrect or inadequate documentation, or deviation from prescribed processing are all examples of:

A - Quality control
B - Non-conformance
C - Non-destructive examination
D - Performance Qualification
_______________________________________________

Question 7:
In the sample Quality Control Manual for Construction of Pressure Piping included in the module, the title of the section of the manual that describes the system for preparing, revising and controlling the distribution of this quality control manual is:

A - Record Retention
B - Manual Control
C - Document Control
D - Material Control

_______________________________________________

Question 8:
The component of a Quality Control Manual that provides a page in the manual where all revisions are documented is called the:

A - Revision Summary
B - Title Page
C - Organizational chart
D - Statement of Authority
_______________________________________________

Question 9:
The acronym "ANSI" stands for:

A - America Non-Destructive Standards Institute
B - American National Specifications Institute
C - American National Safety Institute
D - American National Standards Institute
_______________________________________________

Question 10:
The demonstration of a welder's or welding operator's skill and ability to produce welds in accordance with the welding procedure specification is referred to as:

A - Quality control
B - Procedure qualification record
C - Non-Destructive Examination
D - Performance qualification
_______________________________________________

Question 11:
The component of a Quality Control Manual that identifies the organization within the company responsible for different components of the quality control program is called the:

A - Statement of Authority
B - Revision Summary
C - Title Page
D - Organizational chart
_______________________________________________

Question 12:
When companies build equipment for oil and gas plants, what is their first priority?

A - Durability
B - Reliability
C - Safety
D - Economics
_______________________________________________

Question 13:
The term "N.D.E" refers to an examination of materials and welding to ensure that there are no unacceptable defects that is:

A - Non-derogatory
B - Non-directional
C - Non-invasive
D - Non-destructive
_______________________________________________

Question 14:
For most companies, the top priority in equipment design is sound economics, after which they ensure that their equipment is designed for safety, reliability, durability, and operating stability.

A - True
B - False
_______________________________________________

Question 15:
The section of the Quality Control Manual that describes the system for identifying, documenting, and resolving anything that does not comply with regulations or standards found at receiving, construction, examination, or testing is called:

A - Irregularity Examinations
B - Non-destructive Examinations
C - Irregularities
D - Non-conformities
_______________________________________________

Question 16:
In the sample Quality Control Manual for Construction of Pressure Piping included in the module, the title of the section of the manual that describes the records that will be maintained in accordance with Code and contract requirements is:

A - Document Control
B - Manual Control
C - Record Retention
D - Material Control
_______________________________________________

Question 17:
The quality control manual heading that describes the records that will be maintained in accordance with code and contract requirements is:

A - Inspectors
B - Manual control
C - Record retention
D - Definitions

_______________________________________________

Question 18:
Repairs or alterations to process equipment require approval from:

A - American Society of Mechanical Engineers
B - The local boilers and pressure vessels branch
C - American Welding Society
D - A quality control manager
_______________________________________________

Question 19:
An employee or in some cases, a consultant, designated to be responsible for the entire project at the "field" level, including quality control is known as the:

A - Quality Control Manager
B - Field Project Supervisor
C - Manager of Plant and Facilities Engineering
D - Field Foreman

______________________________________________

Question 20:
After equipment is commissioned and in-service, maintenance is required and must be carried out:

A - Only when equipment shuts down
B - As needed
C - Only during the annual or biannual turnaround
D - On a routine basis

Question 1:
What is the proration factor for a well that has a theoretical production volume of 20 m3/day and an actual production volume 18.6 m3/day?

A - 0.93
B - 9.3
C - 1.075
D - 10.8
_____________________________________________

Question 2:
If each well test volume (with downtime) is multiplied by the PF, the new prorated test volume will be:

A - Greater than the actual volume
B - The same as the actual volume
C - The square of the actual volume
D - Less than the actual volume
_______________________________________________

Question 3:
To comply with government regulations, production accounting is done:

A - Monthly
B - Yearly
C - Weekly
D – Daily

_______________________________________________

Question 4:
The S-8 is a monthly report of receipts and disposition of gas by a gas gathering system (compressor station). This report is also called the monthly:

A - Disposition report
B - Production report
C - Injection statement
D - Gas gathering statement
_______________________________________________
Question 5:
Actual volumes are considered the ________ measurement of product leaving the facility.

A - initial
B - final
C - penultimate
D - temporary
_______________________________________________
Question 6:
The only source of volume and B. S. & W. content data for production and slop tank inventories is the:

A - Operator
B - Sales gas meter
C - Leaseholder
D - Shipping meter
_______________________________________________
Question 7:
A large number of considerations are important in the calculation of theoretical volumes. These include:

A - Trucked in/out volumes
B - Well downtime
C - Results from previous month's well tests
D - All of the above

Question 8:
Sales gas meter data is normally measured using orifice meters with measurement data presented on:

A - Monthly or bi-monthly charts
B - Weekly or bi-weekly charts
C - Daily or 7-day charts
D - CD ROM
_______________________________________________
Question 9:
The correct formula for establishing Proration Factor (PF) is:

A - PF = actual volume / theoretical volume
B - PF = theoretical volume X actual volume
C - PF = actual volume X theoretical volume
D - PF = theoretical volume / actual volume
_______________________________________________
Question 10:
The daily volume that can be produced from a gas well to meet the market demand is called:

A - The nomination
B - The daily obligation
C - Associated gas
D - Sales gas
_______________________________________________
Question 11:
The final measurement of product leaving the facility at the P/L or injection well meter is considered the:

A - Actual volumes
B - Theoretical volumes
C - Proration factor calculation
D - Production proration
_______________________________________________
Question 12:
Lease fuel volumes are not subject to royalty payments and are included in gas disposition reporting.

A - True
B - False
_______________________________________________
Question 13:
The calculated production based on test data and well on-stream time is:

A - Theoretical volume
B - Actual production volume
C - Sales gas volume
D - Truck volume

_______________________________________________

Question 14:
Associated gas is referred to as:

A - Natural gas that is produced in association with crude oil, also referred to as solution gas
B - The annual quantity of gas from a contract that the buyer is obligated to take
C - The daily volume that can be produced from a gas well to meet the market demand
D - The number of cubic metres of gas produced with a cubic metre of oil
_______________________________________________

Question 15:
The S-1 is a report on oil, condensate, gas, and water production from one or more wells that comprise a battery or group of wells. This report is also called the monthly:

A - Disposition report
B - Production report
C - Gas gathering statement
D - Injection statement
_______________________________________
Question 16:
The oil shipping meter readings:

A - Present B. S. & W. content, oil gravity, temperature and meter calibration factor
B - Are normally measured via orifice meters with measurement data presented on daily or 7-day charts
C - Are provided for situations where oil and water are trucked in and out of various sites
D - Provide for calculation or measurement of produced water volumes, source water volumes and injection or disposal volumes
_______________________________________________
Question 17:
The proration factor (or well test correction factor) is established by dividing the actual volume by the:

A - Sales gas volume
B - Theoretical volume
C - Trucked in/out volume
D - Production proration
_______________________________________________
Question 18:
The _________________ has total control over providing accurate net oil volumes in shipping, production and storage tanks.

A - operator
B - regulatory board
C - production accountant
D - joint interest partner
_______________________________________________
Question 19:
In general, most joint interest partners and government agencies use benchmark values to establish if a facility is meeting an acceptable reporting standard. The typical benchmark standard accepted throughout the industry for oil is:

A - Oil +/- 12% 0.90 - 1.10
B - Oil +/- 10% 0.80 - 1.00
C - Oil +/- 15% 0.90 - 1.10
D - Oil +/- 10% 0.90 - 1.10
_______________________________________________

Question 20:
Oil fields are affected on a revenue basis through ensuring of correct B. S. & W. and gravity at the wellhead.

A - True
B - False
_______________________________________________

Question 21:
The field input data that is normally measured via orifice meters with measurement data presented on daily or 7-day charts is:

A - Meter factor information
B - Oil shipping meter readings
C - Water meter readings
D - Sales gas meter data
_______________________________________________

Question 22:
The water meter readings:

A - Present BS&W content, oil gravity temperature and meter calibration factor
B - Provide for calculation or measurement of produced water volumes, source water volumes and injection or disposal volumes
C - Are provided for situations where oil and water are trucked in and out of various sites
D - Are normally measured via orifice meters with measurement data presented on daily or 7-day charts

_______________________________________________

Question 1:
In the hydrocarbon recovery absorption process the heavier hydrocarbon used to absorb the lighter components is called:

A - Amine
B - Molecular sieve
C - Glycol
D - Lean oil
_______________________________________________

Question 2:
The hydrocarbon dew point of the sales gas must be less than:

A - -25°C
B - +40°C
C - +10°C
D - -10°C
_______________________________________________

Question 3:
If the gas stream contains natural gas condensate, it is recovered and processed in a:

A - Converter
B - Desiccant bed
C - Stabilizer
D - Molecular sieve
_______________________________________________

Question 4:
A natural gas stream that contains acid gases such as hydrogen sulphide is called:

A - Sweet
B - LPG
C - Sour
D - Ambient
_______________________________________________

Question 5:
What is a gas dehydration process that employees a granular solid desiccant known as?

A - Absorption process
B - Adsorption process
C - Separation process
D - Sweetening process
_______________________________________________

Question 6:
Removal of H₂S and CO₂from the gas in a gas processing plant is usually done:

A - By using amine
B - At the inlet separator
C - By cooling
D - During recompression
_______________________________________________

Question 7:
Condensate may contain up to a maximum of 8% butane and propane must be less than 0.1% by volume. The maximum Reid Vapour Pressure allowed is:

A - 165 psi
B - 6.5 psi
C - 65 kPa
D - 0.65 kPa
_______________________________________________

Question 8:
In the diagram of the three-phase separator, the water leaves the separator from the:

A - Bottom of the separator
B - Middle of the separator
C - Separator boot
D - Top of the separator
_______________________________________________

Question 9:
In a deep-cut process, where the temperature of the gas stream is dropped by refrigeration or some other cooling process, which component is not condensed out of the gas stream as a liquid?

A - Methane
B - Ethane
C - Butane
D - Propane
_______________________________________________

Question 10:
The recovery of valuable liquids such a propane, butane and ethane is called the:

A - Dehydration process
B - Absorption process
C - Deep cut process
D - Stabilization process
_______________________________________________

Question 11:
When a gas stream is dehydrated by contacting the gas with a liquid desiccant the process is by:

A - Stabilization
B - Separation
C - Absorption
D - Adsorption
_______________________________________________

Question 12:
The gas stream can be dehydrated by contacting the gas with a/an:

A - Absorbent
B - Reboiler
C - Amine solution
D - Desiccant
_______________________________________________

Question 13:
Products such as propane and butane must be very pure and contain no sulphur compounds. To remove all traces of sulphur compounds, the products pass through a:

A - Molecular sieve
B - Converter
C - Stabilizer
D - Desiccant bed
_______________________________________________

Question 14:
When the liquids in the gas stream form the most valuable product, what is removed and returned to the formation from which it came to maintain the reservoir pressure?

A - Hydrogen sulphide
B - Butane
C - Ethane
D - Methane
_______________________________________________

Question 15:
Energy conservation is very important in any gas processing facility. The most common piece of equipment in any gas processing facility is a:

A - Boiler
B - Dehydrator
C - Separator
D - Heat exchanger
_______________________________________________

Дата добавления: 2015-11-14