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Question 1:
The Class 1, Division 1 area around a pig launching or receiving installation in a non-enclosed, adequately ventilated area extends:
A - 1.5 m
B - 15 m
C - 3 m
D - 30 m
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Question 2:
An enclosure that is rated as explosion-proof is gas tight.
A - True
B – False
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Question 3:
Explosion-proof enclosures in need of repair should only be serviced by shops certified by:
A - EUB
B - UL
C - CSA
D - WCB
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Question 4:
The Canadian Standards Association (CSA) classifies hazardous locations according to the nature of the hazard. Locations in which the presence of combustible or electrically conductive dusts poses a hazard are classed as:
A - Class I
B - Class II
C - Class III
D - Class IV
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Question 5:
Unventilated enclosures, cellars, or depressions where unknown gases, or heavier than air gases may be present must be considered to be hazardous. Because the heavier than air gases will concentrate in the depression and displace the ambient air to form a hazardous mixture, such areas are usually classified as:
A - Class II, Division 2
B - Class II, Division 1
C - Class I, Division 1
D - Class I, Division 2
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Question 6:
The Canadian Standards Association (CSA) classifies hazardous locations according to the nature of the hazard. Locations in which the presence of easily ignitable fibres or flyings that are not likely to be in the air in quantities sufficient to produce ignitable mixtures are classed as:
A - Class IV
B - Class III
C - Class II
D - Class I
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Question 7:
Bonding of electrical equipment is defined as:
A - Connections that provide a path to the earth that can carry any fault current that may be imposed on it
B - Connections installed to prevent overheating of equipment that can become an ignition source
C - Securing mobile equipment from inadvertent movement
D - Connections between metal components to ensure a low impedance path for ground fault current to follow
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Question 8:
The term "Explosion Proof" refers to:
A - Non-hazardous locations
B - Enclosures that will withstand an internal explosion without affecting the external atmosphere
C - Gas tight enclosures
D - Enclosures that will withstand an external explosion without affecting the internal atmosphere
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Question 9:
The Canadian Standards Association (CSA) classifies hazardous locations according to the nature of the hazard. Locations in which flammable gases or vapours are or may be present in the air in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures are classed as:
A - Class I
B - Class II
C - Class III
D - Class IV
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Question 10:
The Class I, Division 1 area around the roof vent of a flammable-gas blanketed produced-water tank extends:
A - 1.5 m
B - 30 m
C - 15 m
D - 3 m
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Question 11:
For International and Offshore Operations, the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) standards can be compared to the Canadian Electrical Code. The IEC designation Group II-B is comparable to the CSA designation:
A - Class I, Group D
B - Class I Division 1
C - Class I, Group C
D - Class I, Groups A&B
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Question 12:
The Canadian Electrical Code, Part I requires that, where electrical equipment must be approved for the Class of location, it must also be approved for the specific gas, vapour, or dust that will be present. Atmospheres that contain butadiene, ethylene oxide, hydrogen (or gases or vapours equivalent in hazard to hydrogen, such as manufactured gas), or propylene oxide are classed as:
A - Group A
B - Group C
C - Group D
D - Group B
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Question 13:
Of the four atmospheric group designations established for the purpose of testing and approval of equipment under the Canadian Electrical Code, the group most commonly applied to petroleum industry operations is Group:
A - A
B - B
C - C
D - D
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Question 14:
If piping containing hazardous gases is installed through an unventilated enclosure, it may be considered a hazardous area. Enclosures containing piping are usually designated as:
A - Class II, Division 1
B - Class II, Division 2
C - Class I, Division 1
D - Class I, Division 2
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Question 15:
Under the CEC, if an area contains hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapours under normal conditions, electrical equipment must be designated safe for use in an area classification of:
A - Class 1, Division 1
B - Class 1, Division 2
C - Class 2, Division 1
D - Class 2, Division 2
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Question 16:
The Canadian Electrical Code, Part I requires that where electrical equipment must be approved for the class of location, it must also be approved for the specific gas, vapour on dust that will be present. Atmospheres that contain acetylene are classed as:
A - Group A
B - Group B
C - Group C
D - Group D
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Question 17:
An area where equipment faults or breakdowns could result in the release of hazardous concentrations of flammable gases is classified by the Canadian Standards Association as:
A - Class I, Division 1
B - Class I, Division 2
C - Class I, Division 3
D - Class I, Division 4
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Question 18:
In a cellar where heavier than air gases may be present, electrical equipment used in such an area should be classified as:
A - Class I, Division 1
B - Class I, Division 2
C - Class II, Division 1
D - Class II, Division 2
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Question 19:The Canadian Electrical Code, Part I requires that, where electrical equipment must be approved for the Class of location, it must also be approved for the specific gas, vapour, or dust that will be present. This latter approval may be indicated by an atmospheric group designation. The group most commonly applied to petroleum industry operations is: A - Group A B - Group B C - Group C D - Group D
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Question 1:
In addition to the heating effect of current electric shock can produce:
A - Typhoid
B - Tetanus
C - Hepatitis
D - Neuralgia
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Question 2:
Electric current:
A - Burns tissue
B - Freezes muscles
C - Fibrillates the heart
D - All of the above
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Question 3:
To prevent electrical shock, a pipeline being constructed near a power distribution line must be:
A - Grounded
B - Neutralized
C - Supported
D - Welded
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Question 4:
The consequence of a poor electrical connection is:
A - Localized heating
B - Melted insulation and shock hazard
C - Fire
D - All of the above
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Question 5:
The result of a high voltage short circuit to ground may be:
A - A large release of energy
B - High temperatures
C - Injury
D - All of the above
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Question 6:
A motor control center has encountered an overload. A circuit remains energized even though the disconnect is open. What is most likely the cause?
A - A back EMF is present
B - Capacitors are still charged
C - Static discharge
D - Feeder conductors have fused with motor supply wires
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Question 7:
Which of the following is NOT an example of a hazardous situation produced by electrical equipment operating in an abnormal environment?
A - A dust cloud caused by flour contacting a fan
B - An electric pump operating near a leaking propane heater
C - A submerged sump pump
D - A motor control center flooded by water
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Question 8:
While current kills, it cannot occur without the presence of:
A - Resistance
B - Voltage
C - Power
D - Heat
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Question 9:
__________ current is more likely to cause muscle tetanus than __________ current.
A - Alternating; direct
B - High; low
C - Direct; alternating
D - Alternating; no
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Question 10:
The severity of an electrical shock is increased by:
A - Increased reactance
B - Voltage increase
C - Resistance increase
D - Increased vars
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Question 11:
The AC threshold for possible heart fibrillation is:
A - 0.50 A
B - 0.10 A
C - 0.25 A
D - 0.05 A
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Question 12:
The severity of an electrical shock depends upon:
A - How much current is flowing through the body
B - The path of the current through the body
C - How long the current flows through the body
D - All of the above
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Question 13:
Touch potential can be limited by making sure that the disconnect switch is at the same potential as ones feet. To achieve this we use:
A - Grounding lines
B - Grounding mats
C - Grounding wires
D - Grounding grids
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Question 14:
What is the safe clearance from conductors over 250 kV? (250 000 volts)
A - 3 m
B - 6 m
C - 4.5 m
D - 10 m
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Question 15:
A good safety rule for working around high voltage is:
A - Always keep a safe distance from lines and equipment
B - Use insulated tools to make live connections
C - Use industrial rubber gloves when handling live conductors
D - Always wear safety glasses when connecting live components
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Question 16:
A good safety rule for working around high voltage is:
A - Use industrial rubber gloves when handling live conductors
B - Always wear safety glasses when connecting live components
C - Always keep a safe distance from lines and equipment
D - Use insulated tools to make live connections
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Question 1:
Standard atmospheric pressure is equal to:
A - 14.696 kPa
B - 101.325 kPa
C - 760 kPa
D - 101.325 psia
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Question 2:
A bourdon tube gauge has an arc span of about:
A - 27 degrees
B - 270 degrees
C - 170 degrees
D - 70 degrees
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Question 3:
A bourdon tube gauge has a/an:
A - Oval cross section
B - Circular cross section
C - Flexible disc
D - Corrugated capsule
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Question 4:
A bourdon tube is often in the shape of a spiral so that:
A - Gears can be used to position a pen on a recorder chart
B - More power and rotation occurs to position a pen on a recorder chart without the use of gears
C - It's sensitivity will be decreased
D - Higher pressures can be sensed
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Question 5:
An aneroid barometer is more suitable than a mercury barometer in circumstances where:
A - A portable barometer is required
B - A vertical barometer is required
C - A permanent installation is required
D - None of the above
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Question 6:
The space formed between the left inner and outer bellows in a bellows-type absolute pressure gauge acts as a reference of_______________.
A - absolute zero
B - zero on the Bose-Einstein scale
C - zero Fahrenheit
D - zero Celsius
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Question 7:
Raising the number of corrugations and decreasing the depth of the corrugations in a diaphragm element can:
A - Decrease sensitivity
B - Increase sensitivity
C - Damage the linkage and recorder parts
D - Inhibit elasticity
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Question 8:
What type of measuring devices would you recommend if you were asked to design a system using Bourdon tube-based measuring devices for a system that is dependent on instruments that are sensitive to small pressure changes and where changes in temperature were a concern?
A - Helix type
B - Diaphragm typex
C - C-type
D - Spiral type
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Question 9:
The object of a pressure-sensing element is to convert pressure into:
A - Kilopascals
B - Some form of indication or intelligent signal
C - Volume
D - Mechanical energy
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Question 10:
In an absolute pressure gauge, the space formed between the left inner and outer bellows is under vacuum and acts as a reference of absolute zero.
A - True
B - False
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Question 11:
A function of the bourdon tube gauge hairspring is to:
A - Keep the pointer at zero
B - Return the tube to its zero position
C - Eliminate backlash
D - Return the pointer to zero
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Question 12:
The pressure exerted by the weight of the atmosphere is known as:
A - Gauge pressure
B - Absolute pressure
C - Atmospheric pressure
D - Vacuum
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Question 13:
Imagine that you have been assigned to equip a low-pressure application measurement system with linkages and measurement indicators. Based on what you have learned in this module, what type of pressure measurement equipment should you recommend?
A - Aneroid barometer devices
B - Bourdon tube-based devices
C - Bellows-equipped devices
D - Multiple capsule devices
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Question 14:
The helix type Bourdon tube is more sensitive to small pressure changes and is less affected by temperature changes than the:
A - Spiral type
B - A-type
C - C-type
D - Cylindrical type
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Question 15:
Absolute pressure is equal to:
A - Atmospheric pressure minus the gauge pressure
B - Atmospheric pressure plus the gauge pressure
C - Atmospheric pressure divided by the gauge pressure
D - Atmospheric pressure multiplied by the gauge pressure
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Question 16:
The purpose of the hairspring in a C-type Bourdon tube is to take up any backlash or play between the gear teeth of the pinion and the:
A - Pointer
B - Movement screws
C - Sector
D - Socket
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Question 17:
Bellows elements are ideal for driving linkages or indicators in:
A - Vacuum applications
B - High altitude applications
C - High pressure applications
D - Low pressure applications
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Question 18:
Absolute pressure minus the atmospheric pressure equals:
A - Lithospheric pressure
B - Absolute zero
C - Gauge pressure
D - Vacuum
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Question 19:
The total pressure measured from an absolute vacuum is known as:
A - Atmospheric pressure
B - Vacuum
C - Gauge pressure
D - Absolute pressure
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Question 20:
In a C-type Bourdon tube, the free end of the tube is ______________, while the other end that contains the pressure ________________ is connected to a socket.
A - open, inlet
B - sealed, outlet
C - sealed, inlet
D - open, outlet
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Question 1:
A resistance thermometer operates on the principle that the resistance of a metal such as silver, copper, nickel, or platinum increases in direct proportion to the rise in temperature. It consists of a wire wound resistance, called a resistance temperature detector (RTD), which forms part of a:
A - Wheatstone bridge
B - Reference junction
C - Measuring junction
D - Thermopile
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Question 2:
A bimetal thermometer:
A - Has a slow response to temperature changes
B - Is relatively inaccurate
C - Cannot withstand vibration
D - Can be exposed to temperatures beyond their range without damage
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Question 3:
The two temperature scales accepted by the SI are the Celsius and Kelvin scales. To convert temperatures from Celsius to Kelvin, one can use the formula:
A - K = °C - 273
B - K = °C + 273
C - K = 32 + 460°C
D - K = °C + 373
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Question 4:
The space above the fluid column in a glass-stem thermometer can contain nitrogen in order to increase its temperature range.
A - True
B - False
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Question 5:
The Imperial System uses the Fahrenheit and Rankine scales for temperature measurement. The freezing point of water at standard atmospheric pressure is 32F and the boiling point is:
A - 273°F
B - 100°F
C - 460°F
D - 212°F
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Question 6:
A thermocouple operates on the principle that:
A - A change in the resistance of a metal such as silver on platinum increases in direct proportion to the rise of temperature
B - The intensity of heat radiation from the surface of the body increases proportionately to the fourth power of the absolute temperature of the body
C - A voltage difference between the measuring and reference junctions due to a difference in temperature
D - A change in resistance when a conductor is lengthened and reduced in cross-sectional area
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Question 7:
The bimetal thermometer offers several advantages over the glass stem thermometer including that:
A - It can be easily read with a good degree of accuracy
B - It can withstand considerable vibration
C - It can be exposed to temperatures beyond its range without harm
D - All of the above
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Question 8:
The voltage generated by a thermocouple is nearly directly proportional to the temperature differential between the measuring and reference junctions.
A - True
B - False
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Question 9:
Thermowells are installed in piping and vessels to protect thermometers from the possibility of damage.
A - True
B – False
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Question 10:
Thermistors are temperature sensitive materials that increase in resistance with an increase in temperature.
A - True
B – False
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Question 11:
A resistance thermometer operates on the principle that the resistance of a metal such as silver or platinum ___________ in direct proportion to the _______ in temperature.
A - decreases; rise
B - increases; rise
C - increases; drop
D - decreases; drop
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Question 12:
Radiation pyrometers operate on the principle that the intensity of heat radiation from the surface of a body ___________________ to the fourth power of the ______________ temperature of a body.
A - decreases proportionately; absolute
B - increases proportionately; static
C - increases proportionately; absolute
D - decreases proportionately; static
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Question 13:
An RTD is a thermometer that:
A - Operates on the principle that the intensity of heat radiation from the surface of the body increases proportionately to the fourth power of the absolute temperature of the body
B - Has a negative temperature coefficient
C - Will have a decrease in resistance with an increase in temperature
D - Will have an increasing resistance with an increase in temperature
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Question 14:
Radiation pyrometers are temperature-sensing devices that do not require physical contact with the object or substance of which the temperature is to be measured. They are used where:
A - The furnace atmosphere is compatible to thermocouples
B - The material whose temperature is measured is easily accessible
C - The measured temperature is below the range of thermocouples
D - None of the above
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Question 15:
Why should a thermometer not be exposed to temperatures higher than the indicated range?
A - Because the liquid could expand and break the bulb
B - Because the liquid could evaporate and leave the thermometer dry
C - Because temperature readings will vary by 5 to 7 degrees Fahrenheit
D - Environment Canada guidelines prohibit such equipment abuse
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Question 16:
A Wheatstone bridge is utilized for the measurement of:
A - Temperature
B - Resistance
C - Current
D - Voltage
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Question 17:
A bimetallic thermometer consists of two thin strips of different metals fused together face to face. The top layer, made of an invar alloy, has a:
A - Low melting point
B - High coefficient of lateral expansion
C - High coefficient of linear expansion
D - Low coefficient of linear expansion
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Question 18:
A bimetallic thermometer consists of two thin strips of different metals fused together face to face. The bottom layer, made of brass, has a:
A - High coefficient of linear expansion
B - Low melting point
C - High coefficient of lateral expansion
D - Low coefficient of linear expansion
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Question 19:
The principle of operation of a glass-stem thermometer involves the expansion and contraction of:
A - A column of liquid due to temperature changes
B - A column of gas due to temperature changes
C - Dissimilar metals due to temperature changes
D - A glass stem due to temperature changes
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Question 20:
A thermocouple is an electrical temperature sensing device that consists of two wires made from different metals. One end of each wire is joined together with the other wire forming what is known as a:
A - Reference junction
B - Measuring junction
C - Temperature generation point
D - Bimetallic strip
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Question 21:
A thermopile is a:
A - Compact group of thermocouples in connected parallel
B - Thin strip consisting of two different metals fused together
C - Wire wound resistor
D - Compact group of thermocouples connected in series
Question 1:When using a float and cable indicator for level measurement: A - Turbulence on the liquid surface may create problems with measurement B - Changes in the level of the float can be recorded directly on a chart C - Use should be limited to reasonably clean liquids D - All of the above
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Question 2:
In the bubble pipe level measurement system, the pressure of air or other gas that is required to overcome the opposition of liquid head is _____________ to the level.
A - irrelevant
B - proportional
C - in opposition
D - disproportional
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Question 3:
In a float actuated level indicator that is used on pressurized tanks or vessels, the gauge head is isolated from the tank by a:
A - Bubble pipe level
B - Diaphragm type isolation valve
C - System of gears
D - Stilling well
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Question 4:
In a float and tape installation on pressurized tanks, the effects of turbulence and lateral movement is eliminated by a:
A - System of gears
B - Gauge head
C - Isolating valve
D - Stilling well
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Question 5:
A V-notch should be cut in the bottom of the standpipe in a simple bubbler system to?
A - Allow the air to enter in a steady stream
B - Allow the air to come out in a steady stream
C - Avoid blockage of the pipe due to sediment build-up
D - Provide for blockage of the pipe due to a sediment build-up
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Question 6:
Force equals:
A - Volume/Relative density
B - Mass/Acceleration
C - Mass x Acceleration
D - Mass x Volume
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Question 7:
The float and tape system used for measuring the level in pressurized tanks uses a ______________ to keep constant tension on the tape:
A - flat spiral spring
B - spherical float
C - cylindrical float
D - counterweight
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Question 8:
In the bubble pipe level measurement system, the pressure of air or other gas that is required to overcome the opposition of liquid head is proportional to the:
A - Mass
B - Depth
C - Level
D - Volume
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Question 9:
In a dual bubble pipe system, the high pressure side measures both the liquid head and vapour pressure while the low pressure side measures the:
A - Vapour temperature only
B - Liquid flow rate only
C - Vapour pressure only
D - Liquid head only
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Question 10:
The diaphragm of a bubble pipe level measurement system should not be subjected to temperatures above 65°C.
A - True
B - False
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Question 11:
A cylindrical float type liquid level gauge has a vertical indicating scale mounted on a/an:
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D - Production wing valve | | | Question 16:In a simple bubbler system for open tanks, the bottom of the bubbler standpipe is located at the: C - Zero or datum line in the tank |