16) How soon after a near miss ('AirProx') should the incident be reported in writing using the CAA form numbered 1094?
A Within 7 days
B Within 10 days
C Within 28 days
D As soon as is 'reasonably practical'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
17) A student pilot wishes to make a series of practice landings at an unlicensed aerodrome. Are they able to do so?
A No
B Yes, providing that written permission is obtained from the aerodrome operator
C Yes, providing that the commander is satisfied that the aerodrome facilities are adequate
D No, unless written permission is obtained from the CAA under Rule 6 (exemptions)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/unlicensedaerodromes.htm
18) You are reviewing an Air Information Circular (AIC) concerning safety related topics. On what colour paper is this printed?
A Blue
B Pink
C Cream
D Yellow
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
19) What altimeter setting should normally be set for takeoff and initial climb?
A 1013 hPa
B Aerodrome QNH (or QFE if staying within the circuit)
C QDR
D Regional Pressure Setting
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
20) What should you do if your anti-collision light(s) fail during a flight conducted between the hours of sunrise and sunset?
A Land as soon as is reasonably practical to do so
B Continue - no action is required unless you are in CAS (Controlled Airspace)
C Continue, provided the light is repaired at the earliest practicable opportunity
D You may continue, provided you gain approval from Air Traffic Control
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
1) What is indicated by a yellow square board with a black 'C' on it?
A Customs facilities
B The aerodrome authority (such as ATC)
C Circuits are currently prohibited
D Circuit training is underway
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
2) Which of the following altimeter settings is used when describing flight levels?
A QFE
B QNH
C 1013 hPa
D 1000 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
3) In the absence of any special exemption, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class D airspace below FL 100?
A Transponder, VHF-COM, VOR
B VHF-COM and NAV
C VHF-COM
D VHF-COM and Transponder (with Mode Charlie)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/airspace.htm
4) In order to revalidate a single engine piston class rating by experience, within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating a holder of a PPL(A) licence is required to undertake a training flight with an instructor and complete:
A 12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 12 take-offs and landings
B 6 hours of flight time, 3 hours as pilot in command, 6 take-offs and landings
C 12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 3 take-offs and landings
D 18 hours of flight time, 12 hours as pilot in command, 6 take-offs and landings
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
5) In which classes of airspace would an IFR flight be separated from other IFR flights?
A Class A, B, C, and D
B Class A, B, and C
C Class A, B, C, D, and E
D Class B, C, D, and E
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) You are reviewing some aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) which are printed on mauve paper. What subject do they concern?
A Administration matters
B Maps and Charts
C UK Airspace Restrictions
D Safety
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
7) How soon after a near miss ('AirProx') should the incident be reported in writing using the CAA form numbered 1094?
A Within 7 days
B Within 10 days
C Within 28 days
D As soon as is 'reasonably practical'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
8) When overtaking another aircraft at night, the manoeuvre is considered complete when:
A the overtaking aircraft is passed and clear
B the overtaking aircraft passes abeam
C the overtaken aircraft can see the white navigation light of the overtaking aircraft
D the overtaking aircraft can no longer see the white navigation light of the overtaken aircraft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) According to the Rules of the Air, pilots wishing to practice an instrument approach in VMC with simulated instrument flight conditions must:
A carry a safety pilot in a second control seat
B carry a competent observer and notify ATC of their intentions
C carry a competent observer and obtain prior permission from ATC
D carry a competent observer who is able to communicate directly with the pilot
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/Rule23and24.htm
10) Do the Rules of the Air permit flying in formation?
A Yes, providing that the commanders have agreed to do so
B No
C No, unless an approved course of formation flying has been completed
D Yes, providing that permission from CAA is obtained at least 72 hrs prior to the proposed flight
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
11) For the purposes of customs and other examinations under the terms of the Chicago Convention, a contracting State:
A must require aircraft entering its territory to land at a customs aerodrome
B must require all aircraft to land at a designated 'port of entry'
C must specify which customs aerodrome is to be used by inbound aircraft
D may require aircraft entering its territory to land at a customs aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
12) How old is the pilot with a freshly issued EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid for 5 years likely to be?
A 31 years old
B 38 years old
C 42 years old
D 51 years old
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
13) In the United Kingdom, an aircraft flying outside a control zone at night:
A is permitted to operate under SVFR or IFR as required
B must operate under SVFR
C must operate under IFR
D may operate under VFR
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/vfratnight.htm
14) An Air Traffic Controller can close a licensed aerodrome if:
A weather conditions have significantly deteriorated making landing unsafe
B the runway surface becomes flooded
C essential facilities have failed
D any of the above conditions apply
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) On the ground at an airfield of elevation 480 ft, you adjust your altimeter to read 480 ft with 1000 hPa set. What is the aerodrome QFE likely to be?
A 1016 hPa
B 984 hPa
C 996 hPa
D 998 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
16) On approach to landing during your first solo, Air Traffic Control (ATC) pass you the message, "Golf Romeo Juliet, Cleared to land, surface wind 300 at 10 knots. What should you reply?
A Landing, wind 300 at 10, Golf Romeo Juliet
B Golf Romeo Juliet is cleared to land with the wind at 10 knots
C Roger, Golf Romeo Juliet
D Cleared to land, Golf Romeo Juliet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
17) Entries in a personal flying logbook must be made in:
A ink or pencil
B ink or indelible pencil
C ink only
D black ink only
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) In the UK, Class B airspace is:
A allocated above FL245
B allocated at and above FL100
C allocated at and above 3000 ft
D not allocated
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/ukclassc.htm
19) The holder of a PPL(A) licence shall not act as pilot in command of an aeroplane unless they have:
A a valid and appropriate class or type rating
B a valid type rating
C a valid and appropriate type rating
D a valid class rating
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
20) What altitude is the transition altitude over most of the UK set at?
A 2000 ft
B 3000 ft
C 5000 ft
D 6000 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
1) If a pilot continues to hold a licence, despite not meeting international licensing standards in full, how should the licence be endorsed?
A With detailed particulars explaining the manner in which the pilot has not met the required standards
B With a special authorisation by the issuing State
C By the International Civil Aviation Organisation
D With a list of those States in which the pilot is permitted to exercise the privileges of the licence
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
2) If you inadvertently enter a restricted or danger area, what should you do?
A Make a level turn and leave the area by the quickest means
B Descend and leave the area by the quickest means
C Climb and maintain your present course until you have crossed the area
D Immediately commence a climb providing you are within 2000ft of the area ceiling
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
3) Prior to departing the aerodrome for a cross country navigation exercise, you should check the altimeter by setting:
A the Regional Pressure Setting and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
B aerodrome QFE and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
C 1013 hPa and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
D aerodrome QNH and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) Air Traffic Controllers may close a licensed aerodrome in certain conditions. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A ATC may close the aerodrome if the landing area is unfit
B ATC may close the aerodrome if essential facilities have failed
C Providing that details have been publicised by NOTAM, ATC may close the aerodrome for any reason
D ATC may close the aerodrome if, in their opinion, weather conditions have significantly deteriorated
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
5) An accurate timing device is required for VFR flight. What other items of equipment must be carried as a minimum on VFR flights?
A A compass, GPS, turn coordinator, a vertical speed indicator and an altimeter
B A compass, a turn coordinator, and an airspeed indicator
C An altimeter, a compass, and an airspeed indicator
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, a compass, and an airspeed indicator
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) According to ICAO Annex 11 (Air Traffic Services), an Alerting Service should be provided:
A to all aircraft provided with an Air Traffic Control Service
B only to aircraft that have filed a flight plan in controlled airspace
C only to aircraft that have filed a flight plan
D only to aircraft that are subjected to unlawful interference
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
7) Which of the following items would not be required for a single engine, fixed gear, fixed propeller aircraft?
A Engine logbook
B Noise certificate
C Technical logbook
D Propeller logbook
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
8) An applicant for an EASA PPL(A) must have completed a solo cross country flight in accordance with which of the following minimum parameters?
A A flight of at least 270 km with at least one landing at a different aerodrome en-route
B A flight of at least 100 nm with two full stop landings at different aerodromes en-route
C A flight of at least 150 nm with two full stop landings at different aerodromes en-route
D A flight of at least 150 nm which may be completed as a single sector flight
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
9) An aircraft flying inside a control zone at night is required to operate under:
A VFR, SVFR or IFR as appropriate
B IFR
C SVFR
D IFR unless it is flying on a SVFR flight
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/vfratnight.htm
10) An obstacle which is 456 feet above ground level will:
A not be listed in the AIP
B be listed in the AIP and must be lit at night
C be listed in the AIP and may be lit at night
D be listed in the AIP and will not be lit at night
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
11) What is the special transponder code, selected 5 minutes before parachute dropping begins and operated until the parachutists are estimated to have reached the ground?
A 7600
B 0033
C 2000
D 7003
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
12) The altimeter reading with a pressure setting of 1013 hPa describes your:
A height above aerodrome level
B altitude above aerodrome level
C distance above that pressure level
D altitude above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) Identify the type of airspace from the following description: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All flights are subject to ATC service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information about VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information about other VFR flights.
A Class B
B Class C
C Class D
D Class E
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
14) When overtaking another aircraft on the ground in the UK, you should:
A pass to the left of the other aircraft
B pass to the right of the other aircraft
C pass either side as required, maintaining adequate separation
D pass to the left of nosewheeled aircraft, and to the right of tailwheeled aircraft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) A request for a MATZ penetration should be made:
A at least 15 nm or 5 minutes flying time from the MATZ boundary
B as soon as you are within 3 nm of the zone boundary
C prior to departure
D no less than 3 minutes prior to reaching the boundary
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
16) You encounter severe windshear and low level turbulence on approach to an aerodrome. According to Rule 4, what should you do?
A There is no legal requirement to do anything
B A report must be made to London or Scottish Information immediately
C A report must be made to Air Traffic Control as soon as possible
D A report should be made to Air Traffic Control after landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
17) You are reviewing some aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) which are printed on mauve paper. What subject do they concern?
A Administration matters
B Maps and Charts
C UK Airspace Restrictions
D Safety
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
18) You are on a converging course with another aircraft, but you have the right of way. What should you do?
A Maintain level flight and heading, and monitor the situation
B Climb and turn away from the other aircraft
C Descend until you are clear of the other aircraft
D Maintain course and speed and monitor the situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
19) In accordance with ICAO Annex 7, the Certificate of Registration:
A must be carried in the aircraft on all flights
B must be kept by the aircraft operator in a secure location
C must be carried on international flights, and may be carried on domestic flights
D must be carried on all flights where the departure and arrival aerodrome are different
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
20) What is the name given to the lowest flight level available for cruising above the transition altitude?
A The transition layer
B The transition level
C The initial level
D The primary level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
8) As a holder of a SEP Class Rating, additional 'differences' training is required before you are able to fly:
A Touring motor gliders
B Multi-engine piston aeroplanes
C A single-engine piston seaplane
D A single engined aircraft fitted with cabin pressurisation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was d
6) The EASA PPL (A) requires that you complete a minimum number of hours, including solo and dual flight. What is this figure?
A 40 hours
B 25 hours
C 45 hours
D 45 hours of which 10 hours must be flight by sole reference to instruments
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
11) Your aerodrome elevation is 73 ft, and the QFE you have just been given is 1009 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QNH to be?
A 1020 hectopascals
B 1017 hectopascals
C 1007 hectopascals
D 1011 hectopascals
You chose C, but the correct answer was D.
18) What name is given to the area of the aerodrome used for take-off, landing and taxying?
A The apron
B The manoeuvring area
C The taxiway
D The runway
You chose D, but the correct answer was B
The Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) also incorporates the:
A Flight Manual
B insurance documents
C both Flight Manual and insurance documents
D Certificate of Registration
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was
) For the award of an EASA Private Pilot's Licence, how many hours must be flown dual?
A 35 hours
B 25 hours
C 15 hours
D There is no specific requirement so long as training is complete
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) You are on final approach to a runway. What colour should the lights that mark the far end of the runway be?
A Red
B White
C Flashing yellow (side to side markers)
D Flashing red
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) A Certificate of Airworthiness issued by one contracting State will be recognised as valid by another contracting State, providing:
A the other State has satisfied itself as to the authenticity of the certificate
B the other State has inspected the certificate and issued a quality approval notice
C both States have a joint reciprocal agreement between them
D that the requirements for certificate issue were to an accepted standard
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
14) For how long is an EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid, if you are aged between 40 and 49 years at the time of the medical?
A 12 months
B 24 months
C 36 months
D 60 months
You chose A, but the correct answer was B.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
15) The altimeter setting QFE describes your:
A height above mean sea level
B altitude above aerodrome level
C pressure level
D height above aerodrome level
You chose B, but the correct answer was D.
16) Which of the following pilot maintenance procedures is permitted under the Air Navigation (General) Regulations for aircraft operated in the 'Private' category?
A 'dressing' a minor nick in a propeller
B replacement of landing gear tyres and safety belts or safety harnesses
C replacement of a combined COM/NAV system
D replacement of defective split pin in the flight control system
You chose C, but the correct answer was B.
A pilot may sign the second part of a Duplicate Inspection Certificate for:
A all repairs completed by a qualified engineer
B a minor adjustment to a control when away from base
C an annual service
D routine minor services only
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
When is a transponder required for flight outside controlled airspace?
A When inside an ATZ
B When you are entering a MATZ
C When you are in the 'Open FIR'
D When you are at FL100 or above
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
14) According to the Chicago Convention, what is a nation's territory defined as?
A The land over which the State has sovereignty
B The land and seas over which the State has sovereignty
C The land and seas (up to 6 miles offshore) over which the State has sovereignty
D The land and seas (up to 12 miles offshore) over which the State has sovereignty
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
19) In the United Kingdom, an aircraft flying outside a control zone at night:
A is permitted to operate under SVFR or IFR as required
B must operate under SVFR
C must operate under IFR
D may operate under VFR
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
Дата добавления: 2015-09-29; просмотров: 17 | Нарушение авторских прав
| <== предыдущая лекция | | | следующая лекция ==> |