10) The white navigation light of a fixed wing powered aircraft is visible at the rear:
A 70 degrees either side of the centreline
B 140 degrees either side of the centreline
C 35 degrees either side of the centreline
D 22.5 degrees either side of the centreline
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
11) When approaching to land at an aerodrome below a TMA or CTA, what altimeter setting should be used when flying below the transition altitude to avoid entering controlled airspace?
A Aerodrome QNH
B The Regional Pressure Setting
C Aerodrome QFE
D 1013 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
12) Which of the following scenarios would be considered to be a notifiable accident?
A A part falls from your aircraft injuring someone beneath you
B You make a heavy landing and burst a tyre
C The engine fails and you make a successful forced landing in a field
D You discover damage to the undercarriage of your aircraft after a landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
13) According to ICAO Annex 11 (Air Traffic Services), an Alerting Service should be provided:
A to all aircraft provided with an Air Traffic Control Service
B only to aircraft that have filed a flight plan in controlled airspace
C only to aircraft that have filed a flight plan
D only to aircraft that are subjected to unlawful interference
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) The call sign 'Information' suggests that you are talking to:
A an air Traffic Control (ATC) tower
B an Air / Ground station
C a flight information service officer
D an officer able to provide you with a Traffic Service
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) With the exception of certain aircraft with a STOL (Short Take-Off and Landing) capability, a Noise Certificate is required for:
A every propeller driven aeroplane with a weight of 9,000 kg or less
B twin engined propeller driven craft
C jet aircraft, but not propeller driven aircraft
D all propeller driven aircraft with a weight in excess of 5,700 kg
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
16) Identify the type of airspace from the following description: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All flights are subject to ATC service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR and VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information about other VFR flights.
A Class B
B Class C
C Class D
D Class E
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions
B carry a 'competent observer'
C hold an Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) rating (or higher qualification)
D inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a 'competent observer'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
18) You (sensibly) decide to complete the IMC course after your PPL. Which of the following correctly describes the situation regarding this national rating?
A National ratings are valid in all contracting states
B National ratings are never valid in other states
C National ratings may be accepted at the discretion of other states
D National ratings are valid in all contracting states other than the USA
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
19) You are reviewing some aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) which are printed on mauve paper. What subject do they concern?
A Administration matters
B Maps and Charts
C UK Airspace Restrictions
D Safety
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
20) In the AIP, where would you find information on specific aerodromes?
A ENR
B GEN
C AIC
D AD
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
1) Which of the following lists is made up of those aircraft which must give way to a glider?
A Hot air balloons, Microlights, Aircraft towing other aircraft
B Airships, Hot air balloons
C Helicopters, Microlights, Power driven fixed wing aircraft
D Hot air balloons, Helicopters, Microlights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
2) After a flight, when must the technical log for an aircraft in the Public Transport category be completed?
A Before it is flown by the next pilot
B At the end of the day
C Within 12 hours of the flight
D Before it is flown by the next pilot or at the end of the day, whichever is the sooner
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
3) With respect to airspace classification requirements, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class E airspace below FL100?
A Nothing
B VHF-COM
C VHF-COM and NAV
D VHF-COM and Transponder (with Mode Charlie)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/airspace.htm
4) You have just departed an aerodrome, with QNH 1010 hectopascals set. You are passed the Regional Pressure Setting of 1009 hectopascals. If your altimeter read 2410 before updating the setting, what will your altimeter read afterwards?
A 2440 feet
B 2380 feet
C 2300 feet
D 2420 feet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) What transponder code would you set in an emergency?
A 2003
B 7500
C 7700
D 7600
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) What sort of medical does a licence holder require in order to exercise the privileges of their EASA PPL(A) licence?
A A Class 1 medical
B Either a Class 1 or Class 2 medical
C A Class 2 medical
D A medical issued by a general practitioner
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
7) Student pilots flying solo without a RT licence are:
A not permitted to use the radio
B permitted to use the radio for emergencies only
C permitted to use the radio as required
D permitted to use the radio providing that they have written authorisation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
8) In level flight above the transition altitude (usually 3000ft), what altimeter setting should be used by pilots flying IFR?
A Regional Pressure Setting
B QNH
C 1013 hPa
D Either QFE or QNH (at the pilots discretion)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
9) In the AIP, where would you find information on specific aerodromes?
A ENR
B GEN
C AIC
D AD
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
10) Unless otherwise indicated, circuits are normally flown in a:
A left hand pattern
B right hand pattern
C straight in approach
D left hand pattern unless there is a red flag flying in the signals square
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
11) A white dumb-bell with black stripes at each end indicates that:
A you may manoeuvre on any part of the aerodrome
B take-off and landing must be on hard surfaces
C all movement must be made on hard surfaces
D movement of aircraft on hard surfaces is not permitted
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
12) What is the speed limit for VFR traffic at FL80?
A 140 kt IAS
B 140 kt GS
C 250 kt IAS
D 250 kts TAS
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) If an aircraft from one ICAO contracting State lands in another State, certain items are exempt from customs duties. Which of the following best describes what these items are?
A Fuel, lubricating oils, spare parts and regular equipment remaining on board
B Fuel contained in aircraft tanks and spare containers of lubricating and hydraulic oils
C Fuel and any spare parts that are specific to that aircraft providing that they remain on board
D All items that remain on board for the duration of the period spent in the foreign contracting State
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) According to the Rules of the Air, an anti-collision light fitted to an aircraft means:
A A fixed or flashing red light
B A flashing red light
C A flashing white light
D A flashing red or white light
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
15) What name is given to the area of the aerodrome used for take-off, landing and taxying?
A The apron
B The manoeuvring area
C The taxiway
D The runway
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
16) A royal flight is to take place in the open FIR, and a temporary controlled airway is established between two aerodromes. What is the horizontal width of this airway?
A 8 nm
B 15 nm
C 5 nm
D 10 nm
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
17) A pilot is following the coastline and transiting controlled airspace in accordance with ATC instructions. Which of the following statements is correct?
A The pilot should keep the coastline on their left
B The pilot should keep the coastline on their right
C The pilot is not required to keep the coastline on any particular side
D The pilot should keep the coastline on their left unless above the transition altitude
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
18) Which of the following need NOT be recorded in your personal flying logbook?
A Particulars of flight simulator tests
B Flights in which you were 'supernumerary'
C The type and registration mark of the aircraft
D Flights in which you were under training
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
19) What should you do if your anti-collision light(s) fail during a flight conducted between the hours of sunrise and sunset?
A Land as soon as is reasonably practical to do so
B Continue - no action is required unless you are in CAS (Controlled Airspace)
C Continue, provided the light is repaired at the earliest practicable opportunity
D You may continue, provided you gain approval from Air Traffic Control
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
20) A request for a MATZ penetration should be made:
A at least 15 nm or 5 minutes flying time from the MATZ boundary
B as soon as you are within 3 nm of the zone boundary
C prior to departure
D no less than 3 minutes prior to reaching the boundary
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
1) Subject to certain requirements and restrictions, the holder of a PPL(A) licence is able to engage in aerial work as pilot in command in the UK. Which of the following activities may be undertaken?
A agricultural crop spraying
B banner towing
C aerial photography and banner towing
D glider towing and the dropping of parachutists
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
2) A green flashing two letter morse code group at an aerodrome, repeated every 12 seconds:
A indicates the location of the government aerodrome
B indicates the location and identifies the government aerodrome
C indicates the location of the civilian aerodrome
D indicates the location and identifies the civilian aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
3) What is the name given to the lowest flight level available for cruising above the transition altitude?
A The transition layer
B The transition level
C The initial level
D The primary level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
4) How old is the pilot with a freshly issued EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid for 5 years likely to be?
A 31 years old
B 38 years old
C 42 years old
D 51 years old
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
5) With respect to airspace classification requirements, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class E airspace below FL100?
A Nothing
B VHF-COM
C VHF-COM and NAV
D VHF-COM and Transponder (with Mode Charlie)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/airspace.htm
6) You are flying in an unfamiliar area when you notice a series of red and green stars, fired from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds. What does this mean?
A You are about to enter a low level firing range
B You are in or very near to a restricted, prohibited or danger area
C There is a gas venting area in the vicinity
D You are close to a military aerodrome traffic zone
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) Which of the following altimeter settings is used when describing flight levels?
A QFE
B QNH
C 1013 hPa
D 1000 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
8) You are intending to fly in accordance with the semicircular rule and anticipate that your magnetic track will be north east. The QNH is 1030 hPa. Which of the following is your lowest available flight level?
A FL 35
B FL 50
C FL 70
D FL 45
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) You encounter severe windshear and low level turbulence on approach to an aerodrome. According to Rule 4, what should you do?
A There is no legal requirement to do anything
B A report must be made to London or Scottish Information immediately
C A report must be made to Air Traffic Control as soon as possible
D A report should be made to Air Traffic Control after landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
10) A request for a MATZ penetration should be made:
A at least 15 nm or 5 minutes flying time from the MATZ boundary
B as soon as you are within 3 nm of the zone boundary
C prior to departure
D no less than 3 minutes prior to reaching the boundary
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
11) Which of the following lists is made up of those aircraft which must give way to a glider?
A Hot air balloons, Microlights, Aircraft towing other aircraft
B Airships, Hot air balloons
C Helicopters, Microlights, Power driven fixed wing aircraft
D Hot air balloons, Helicopters, Microlights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
12) A royal flight is to take place in the open FIR, and a temporary controlled airway is established between two aerodromes. What is the horizontal width of this airway?
A 8 nm
B 15 nm
C 5 nm
D 10 nm
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
13) An aircraft flying inside a control zone at night is required to operate under:
A VFR, SVFR or IFR as appropriate
B IFR
C SVFR
D IFR unless it is flying on a SVFR flight
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/vfratnight.htm
14) The articles of the Chicago Convention require:
A aircraft to be registered in all States that may be overflown
B aircraft to be registered in one State only
C aircraft to be registered in the departure and destination State
D aircraft to be registered in no more than two States at any one time
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
15) An aircraft taxying for departure is converging with a tractor unit towing another aircraft. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The tractor towing the aircraft must give way
B The aircraft taxying for departure must give way
C The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its right must give way
D The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its left must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
16) What 'in-flight' visibility is required for VFR flight in class G airspace above 3000ft but below FL100?
A 10 km
B 3 km
C 1800m
D 5 km
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
17) Is a Certificate of Maintenance Review required for an aircraft used for flying training?
A No, because flying training is not classed as 'aerial work'
B No, because flying training is not classified in the 'transport' category
C Yes, because flying training is classed as 'aerial work'
D Yes, because flying training is classified in the 'transport' category
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
18) How often are aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) published?
A Weekly
B Fortnightly
C Monthly
D Annually
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
19) You are flying over a large open air rock concert in a field, where the field elevation is 328 ft. Notwithstanding the requirement to 'land clear' in the event of engine failure, what minimum altitude should you maintain?
A 1328 ft
B 1000 m
C 1828 ft
D 1100 m
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/rule5amended.htm
20) A balloon is required to display what signal at night?
A A double red light of which at least one light is visible from any direction
B A single white light visible in all directions
C A flashing red light
D A single fixed red light visible in all directions
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
1) You are flying at night, and see a single fixed white light coming closer. What are you approaching?
A A glider that is coming towards you
B An airship or hot air balloon
C Another aircraft heading roughly the same way as you
D An aerodrome identification beacon
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
2) What does a red square with a single yellow diagonal stripe on the signals area indicate?
A The state of the manoevering area is poor
B Aircraft should land in emergency only
C Runway is closed. Do not land in any circumstance
D Do not taxi on the runway without ATC permission
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
3) Air Traffic Control pass you a 'conditional clearance'. Which of the following is true?
A Pilots should read back the conditional clearance first
B The conditional clearance part of the message does not need to be read back to ATC
C The conditional clearance is read back after the other parts of the message
D The message may be acknowledged with the word 'Roger' or 'Wilco'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
4) You are flying in an unfamiliar area when you notice a series of red and green stars, fired from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds. What does this mean?
A You are about to enter a low level firing range
B You are in or very near to a restricted, prohibited or danger area
C There is a gas venting area in the vicinity
D You are close to a military aerodrome traffic zone
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) You wish to simulate instrument flight conditions for training purposes. Which of the following statements is correct?
A A safety pilot is required, but the aircraft need not be fitted with dual controls
B A safety pilot is required and a third person (competent observer) may also be required
C A safety pilot must be carried but is not restricted in their choice of seating position
D A competent observer (who need not be a pilot) should be carried
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/Rule23and24.htm
6) The Regional Pressure Setting is the:
A highest current QNH for aerodromes within that region
B highest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
C average forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
D lowest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
7) Cost sharing between a Private Pilot licence holder and three other passengers for a private flight is:
A prohibited
B permitted, providing that the pilot contributes a quarter share of the costs
C permitted only with prior approval of the Civil Aviation Authority
D permitted, providing the aircraft has a public transport certificate of airworthiness
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
8) A NOTAMC:
A cancels a previous NOTAM
B corrects a previous NOTAM
C clarifies an existing NOTAM
D is a NOTAM with the information identifier 'Charlie'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) Which of the following is the correct vertical limit of an ATZ?
A 2000 ft above aerodrome level
B 2000 ft above mean sea level
C 2000 ft above average ground level
D 3000 ft above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
10) Operators of non-complex aircraft are required to keep:
A an aircraft logbook
B an engine logbook
C a propeller logbook
D both an aircraft logbook and an engine logbook
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
11) How soon after a flight must your logbook entry be completed?
A As soon as is reasonably practical
B Within 12 hours of completion of the flight
C Within 48 hours of landing
D Within 24 hours of landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
12) In level flight above the transition altitude (usually 3000ft), what altimeter setting should be used by pilots flying IFR?
A Regional Pressure Setting
B QNH
C 1013 hPa
D Either QFE or QNH (at the pilots discretion)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) As part of your pre-flight check for a night flight, you discover that the green starboard navigation light has failed. Which of the following statements is in compliance with the Rules of the Air?
A The aircraft may depart from the aerodrome without restriction
B Approval to continue from Air Traffic Control is required prior to departure
C The flight may not depart from the aerodrome until the light is repaired or replaced
D The flight may continue providing that the aircraft operator (or owner) is informed
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
14) Which of the following statements regarding aerobatic manoeuvres over a congested area is true?
A Aerobatic manoeuvres are not permitted
B Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are at 3000 ft or higher
C Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are able to 'land clear' if required
D Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you have consent of the appropriate ATC unit
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
15) The QFE for the aerodrome is currently 998 hectopascals. The QNH you have been given is 1007 hectopascals. Approximately what would you expect the aerodrome elevation to be?
A 150 ft
B 330 ft
C 300 ft
D 270 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
16) A pilot is (correctly) transmitting the transponder code 0033. The pilot is transmitting:
A an ATC assigned en-route 'squawk' code
B the special code to indicate that parachute operations are under way
C a special code to indicate VHF communications radio failure
D the standard UK conspicuity code for normal operations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) With respect to the Chicago Convention, regulations relating to entry and departure of international air traffic are those of the:
A contracting State in question
B State of registry
C International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO)
D European Aviation Safety Association (EASA)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) You are on a three mile final, at night, and have been cleared to land. Air Traffic Control suddenly respond to a different aircraft, clearing them to make an immediate emergency landing. You should:
A speed up and land immediately, vacating the runway as soon as possible
B give way. You can then land after the other craft without further clearance
C give way. You must not land without a further clearance
D immediately contact ATC and advise them of your current position and intentions
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
19) After landing in a remote area, you decide to lay out a ground signal to indicate you require assistance. What is this signal?
A The letter X
B The letter S
C The letter A
D The letter V
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
20) In which classes of airspace would an IFR flight be separated from other IFR flights?
A Class A, B, C, and D
B Class A, B, and C
C Class A, B, C, D, and E
D Class B, C, D, and E
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
1) In which section of the AIP would you find information relating to airspace classifications?
A GEN
B ENR
C AD
D AIC
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
2) Whilst en route to your destination at night, you see a red and a green light ahead of you at your level. What does this mean?
A You are approaching a high obstruction, lit by markers
B You are approaching another aircraft in a (potentially) head on situation
C You are approaching a hot air balloon which is facing you
D You are approaching an aerodrome and the PAPI is indicating you are too high
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
3) 'Long final' is deemed to be when you are:
A approximately 6 nautical miles from the runway threshold
B 10 nautical miles from the runway threshold
C less than 4 nautical miles from the runway threshold
D between 4 and 8 nautical miles from the runway threshold
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
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