2) A green flashing two letter morse code group at an aerodrome, repeated every 12 seconds:
A indicates the location of the government aerodrome
B indicates the location and identifies the government aerodrome
C indicates the location of the civilian aerodrome
D indicates the location and identifies the civilian aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
3) How soon after a flight must your logbook entry be completed?
A As soon as is reasonably practical
B Within 12 hours of completion of the flight
C Within 48 hours of landing
D Within 24 hours of landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
4) What is the speed limit for VFR traffic at 2500 ft?
A 100 kts
B 140 kts
C 250 kts
D Unlimited
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
5) In which section of the AIP would you find information relating to airspace classifications?
A GEN
B ENR
C AD
D AIC
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
6) The Rules of the Air apply to:
A all aircraft in the UK irrespective of their State of registry
B all UK aircraft wherever in the world they may be
C all foreign aircraft in UK airspace
D all of the above situations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
7) At lower levels, approximately how many feet does 1 hectopascal of altimeter setting equate to?
A 40 ft
B 30 ft
C 20 ft
D 37 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
8) What in-flight visibility are you required to have in order to fly Special VFR (sVFR) in a control zone as a basic PPL (A)?
A 1800 m
B 3 km
C 10 km
D 1500 m
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
9) A weight schedule, prepared as part of a previous Certificate of Airworthiness has now been superceded by a new weight schedule. For how long must this old schedule be kept?
A 3 months
B 12 months
C 28 days
D 6 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
10) The pilot in command is the:
A person responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft throughout the flight
B person who for the time being is in charge of the piloting of an aircraft
C most senior pilot in the aircraft irrespective of whether they are at the flight controls
D pilot who authorises the flight's departure
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) Student pilots flying solo without a RT licence are:
A not permitted to use the radio
B permitted to use the radio for emergencies only
C permitted to use the radio as required
D permitted to use the radio providing that they have written authorisation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
12) According to Rule 5 of the Rules of the Air, aircraft intending to drop articles outside of an aerodrome's ATZ are:
A required to obtain CAA permission and are exempt from the 500 ft rule
B exempt from the 500 ft rule and are not required to obtain CAA permission
C not exempt from the 500 ft rule
D exempt from the 500 ft rule providing they are at least 1000 m from any person, vehicle or structure
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
13) If an aircraft from one ICAO contracting State lands in another State, certain items are exempt from customs duties. Which of the following best describes what these items are?
A Fuel, lubricating oils, spare parts and regular equipment remaining on board
B Fuel contained in aircraft tanks and spare containers of lubricating and hydraulic oils
C Fuel and any spare parts that are specific to that aircraft providing that they remain on board
D All items that remain on board for the duration of the period spent in the foreign contracting State
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) If you elected to fly IFR, how should you describe your vertical position when you are above the transition altitude?
A Height
B Altitude, using the Regional Pressure Setting
C Flight Level
D Altitude, using the QNH for the nearest aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) What is the transition layer?
A The airspace above the transition level
B A layer 500 ft thick for extra separation between aircraft
C A layer 1000 ft thick for extra separation between aircraft
D The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
16) For how long is an EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid, if you are exactly 39 years old at the time of the medical?
A 60 months
B 12 months
C 24 months
D 36 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
17) In the United Kingdom, an aircraft flying outside a control zone at night:
A is permitted to operate under SVFR or IFR as required
B must operate under SVFR
C must operate under IFR
D may operate under VFR
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/vfratnight.htm
18) With reference to search and rescue (SAR) operations, the letter 'X' laid out on the ground by survivors means:
A Require assistance
B The survivor(s) no longer require assistance
C The survivor(s) have left the accident site
D Require medical assistance
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
19) Whilst en route to your destination at night, you see a red and a green light ahead of you at your level. What does this mean?
A You are approaching a high obstruction, lit by markers
B You are approaching another aircraft in a (potentially) head on situation
C You are approaching a hot air balloon which is facing you
D You are approaching an aerodrome and the PAPI is indicating you are too high
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
20) Identify the type of airspace from the following description: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All flights are subject to ATC service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information about VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information about other VFR flights.
A Class B
B Class C
C Class D
D Class E
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
Which of the following statements regarding airspace sovereignty is correct?
A No State has complete sovereignty over airspace above its territory
B States have joint sovereignty over all contiguous States
C Every State has complete sovereignty over airspace above its territory
D Sovereignty of airspace is subject to regional agreements
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
12) If you are flying VFR, and wish to comply with the semicircular rule, which of the following would be your correct level if you were flying eastbound?
A Odd thousands of feet (i.e. FL30, FL50)
B Even thousands of feet (i.e. FL40, FL60)
C Odd thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL35, FL55)
D Even thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL45, FL65)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
17) A pilot who has just donated blood may not fly as pilot in command until a certain number of hours have elapsed. How long must he or she wait?
A 12 hours
B 24 hours
C 48 hours
D 60 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) In accordance with Rule 8, who is responsible for collision avoidance?
A Air Traffic Control
B Air Traffic Control (when providing a Basic Service)
C The pilot in command
D Air Traffic Control (when providing a Deconfliction Service)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) A pilot suffers a significant personal injury and is unable to perform their duties as flight crew. With respect to their medical status, which of the following is correct?
A The medical must be renewed via a full initial medical
B The medical status is not affected, providing the rating remains valid
C The medical is suspended pending evaluation
D The medical is suspended for a period of 21 days
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) Article 9 of the Air Navigation Order sets out the purposes for which an aircraft may fly. In what Certificate of Airworthiness category must an aircraft used for rental be?
A Special
B Private
C Aerial Work
D Transport
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
17) You are approaching an aerodrome at an altitude of 2370 ft, with QNH 1021 hectopascals set. You set 989 hectopascals QFE for landing. What will your altimeter read now?
A 1890 feet
B 3330 feet
C 1410 feet
D 1210 feet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
19) You are flying IFR in Class E airspace. Which of the following statements is true?
A You will be separated from VFR flights
B You will be separated from other IFR flights
C You will be separated from other IFR and VFR flights
D You will not receive an ATC service
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B
1) What is a Regional Pressure Setting?
A The average forecast QFE value for that region
B The highest forecast QNH value for that region
C The average forecast QNH value for that region
D The lowest forecast QNH value for that region
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
2) What frequency is considered to be the aeronautical VHF radio distress frequency?
A 121.50 MHz
B 150.00 MHz
C 133.12 MHz
D 121.25 MHz
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
3) What are the vertical dimensions of a MATZ stub?
A From the surface to 2000 ft above aerodrome level
B From the surface to 3000 ft above aerodrome level
C From 1000 ft to 2000 ft above aerodrome level
D From 1000 ft to 3000 ft above aerodrome level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) Which of the following statements regarding airspace sovereignty is correct?
A No State has complete sovereignty over airspace above its territory
B States have joint sovereignty over all contiguous States
C Every State has complete sovereignty over airspace above its territory
D Sovereignty of airspace is subject to regional agreements
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
5) An intercepting aircraft indicates to you that you are now clear to proceed. How does it indicate this?
A An abrupt breakaway climbing turn
B By descending rapidly
C By firing a green flare
D By lowering its undercarriage
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
6) For how long is an Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC) valid?
A 6 months
B 12 months
C 24 months
D Indefinitely
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) In the UK, Class B airspace is:
A allocated above FL245
B allocated at and above FL100
C allocated at and above 3000 ft
D not allocated
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/ukclassc.htm
8) When planning to operate at an unlicensed aerodrome, not listed in the AIP you are:
A advised to obtain permission and airfield information from the aerodrome operator
B required by law to file a flight plan for any flight involving an unlicensed aerodrome
C able to take-off or land without requiring permission from the aerodrome operator
D not required to obtain prior permission to land
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) Aeronautical night is defined as being from:
A sunset to sunrise
B 30 minutes before sunset to 30 minutes after sunrise
C 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise
D 60 minutes after sunset to 60 minutes before sunrise
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
10) Which of the following statements regarding aerobatic manoeuvres over a congested area is true?
A Aerobatic manoeuvres are not permitted
B Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are at 3000 ft or higher
C Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are able to 'land clear' if required
D Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you have consent of the appropriate ATC unit
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
11) Which of the following items would not be required for a single engine, fixed gear, fixed propeller aircraft?
A Engine logbook
B Noise certificate
C Technical logbook
D Propeller logbook
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
12) You are on a converging course with another aircraft, but you have the right of way. What should you do?
A Maintain level flight and heading, and monitor the situation
B Climb and turn away from the other aircraft
C Descend until you are clear of the other aircraft
D Maintain course and speed and monitor the situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
13) The Rules of the Air apply to:
A all aircraft in the UK irrespective of their State of registry
B all UK aircraft wherever in the world they may be
C all foreign aircraft in UK airspace
D all of the above situations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
14) What is a TNW bulletin?
A Advice concerning a terminal navigation waypoint
B Information concerning terminal (aerodrome) notified works
C Advice concerning a temporary navigation waypoint
D A temporary navigation warning
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
15) You are flying IFR in Class E airspace. Which of the following statements is true?
A You will be separated from VFR flights
B You will be separated from other IFR flights
C You will be separated from other IFR and VFR flights
D You will not receive an ATC service
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
16) Two aircraft are both on a final approach. Under normal circumstances, which has priority?
A The aircraft that is lower
B The aircraft that is on 'long final'
C The aircraft that is larger
D The aircraft that has a higher approach speed
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
17) If you are flying VFR, and wish to comply with the semicircular rule, which of the following would be your correct level if you were flying westbound?
A Odd thousands of feet (i.e. FL30, FL50)
B Even thousands of feet (i.e. FL40, FL60)
C Odd thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL35, FL55)
D Even thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL45, FL65)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
18) Whilst walking to your aircraft you notice a white dumb-bell with black stripes at each end in the signals square. What does this indicate?
A Aircraft movement is confined to hard surfaces only
B Movement of aircraft on hard surfaces is not permitted
C Take-off and landing must be on hard surfaces
D Gliding operations are in force
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
19) You change from Regional Pressure Setting to QFE on approach. The Regional Pressure Setting was 1020 hPa, and the QFE is now 1005 hPa. By how much will your altimeter setting change?
A It will gain 15 ft
B It will lose 450 ft
C It will gain 450 ft
D It will lose 600 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
20) As a newly qualified Private Pilot with experience of fixed undercarriage only, are you permitted to fly aircraft with retractable undercarriages?
A Yes, providing you read through the Flight Manual for that craft
B Yes, after you have accrued 10 hours post qualification
C Yes, but only after completing 'differences training'
D Yes, providing you read the Flight Manual and have at least 25 hours logged as 'pilot in command'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
1) Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions
B carry a 'competent observer'
C hold an Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) rating (or higher qualification)
D inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a 'competent observer'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
2) Which of the following is the correct vertical limit of an ATZ?
A 2000 ft above aerodrome level
B 2000 ft above mean sea level
C 2000 ft above average ground level
D 3000 ft above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
3) In the United Kingdom, an aircraft flying outside a control zone at night:
A is permitted to operate under SVFR or IFR as required
B must operate under SVFR
C must operate under IFR
D may operate under VFR
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/vfratnight.htm
4) At what distance should you call 'final' on approach to a landing?
A 4 nautical miles or less
B 5 nautical miles or more
C 10 nautical miles
D 6 nautical miles or less
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
5) Which of the following must always be read back in full to an ATC controller?
A Runway in use
B Wind direction
C Traffic reports
D A request to 'report final'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
6) ICAO Annex 12 describes a phase where the rescue coordination centre contacts search and rescue units, raising resources to immediate action status. What is the name given to this phase?
A Uncertainty phase
B Alert phase
C Distress phase
D Standby phase
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) In the UK, Airways are ________ airspace. What are the missing words?
A Class B or Class A
B Class C
C Class A or Class C
D Class B
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/ukclassc.htm
8) If you are flying VFR, and wish to comply with the semicircular rule, which of the following would be your correct level if you were flying due north?
A Odd thousands of feet (i.e. FL30, FL50)
B Even thousands of feet (i.e. FL40, FL60)
C Odd thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL35, FL55)
D Even thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL45, FL65)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
9) What does a white double cross indicate, when displayed in the signals square of an aerodrome?
A Runway surfaces are poor
B Gliding is taking place at this aerodrome
C Parachuting is taking place at this aerodrome
D Runway is closed - do not land here
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
10) Under the terms of the Chicago Convention, who has the duty to ensure that aircraft in flight comply with the rules and regulations?
A The State of registry of the aircraft
B The State over which the flight takes place
C The State of registry of the aircraft and any State entered by the aircraft
D The pilot in command
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
11) If a pilot continues to hold a licence, despite not meeting international licensing standards in full, how should the licence be endorsed?
A With detailed particulars explaining the manner in which the pilot has not met the required standards
B With a special authorisation by the issuing State
C By the International Civil Aviation Organisation
D With a list of those States in which the pilot is permitted to exercise the privileges of the licence
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
12) When flying more than 50nm from land, ICAO Annex 6 states that single engined aircraft shall be equipped with:
A liferafts and lifejackets
B lifejackets
C hydrostatically released liferafts
D lifejackets and a liferaft equipped with an emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
13) An aeronautical beacon at a civil aerodrome will show:
A a three letter morse group signal in green
B a two letter morse group signal in red
C a flashing white light
D a three letter morse group signal in red
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
14) In accordance with Rule 8, who is responsible for collision avoidance?
A Air Traffic Control
B Air Traffic Control (when providing a Basic Service)
C The pilot in command
D Air Traffic Control (when providing a Deconfliction Service)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/atsocas.htm
15) On what colour paper would you expect to find an aeronautical information circular (AIC) concerning administration matters?
A Green
B Yellow
C Blue
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
16) In which classes of airspace would an IFR flight be separated from other VFR flights?
A Class A, B, C, D, and E
B Class A, B, C, and D
C Class B, and C
D Class B, C and D
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
17) Pilots studying for their EASA PPL(A) are allowed to fly solo, once they are:
A deemed to be sufficiently competent, at any age.
B 18 years old
C 17 years old
D 16 years old
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
18) The Regional Pressure Setting is the:
A highest current QNH for aerodromes within that region
B highest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
C average forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
D lowest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
19) Unless otherwise defined by the relevant authority, the definition of 'night' is the time between:
A the end of evening civil twilight and the start of morning civil twilight the next day
B sunset and sunrise
C twilight and dawn
D the start of evening civil twilight and the end of morning civil twilight the next day
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
20) For how long is an EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid, if you are less than 40 years old at the time of the medical?
A 12 months
B 24 months
C 60 months
D 60 months or your 42nd birthday, whichever is sooner
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
1) A white dumb-bell displayed on the signals square indicates that:
A aircraft movement is confined to hard surfaces only
B aircraft may only move with permission of ATC
C aircraft movement across the apron is prohibited
D aircraft do not require ATC permission to move on hard surfaces
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
2) An important document concerning Take-off, Climb and Landing performance, printed on pink paper, is an example of:
A a Class 2 NOTAM
B an aeronautical information circular (AIC)
C a temporary warning (TW)
D a mandatory operational procedure issued by the ICAO Chicago Convention
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
3) Which of the following statements concerning the Chicago Convention is true?
A States have the right to require overflying aircraft to land
B States do not have the right to require overflying aircraft to land
C States can only require overflying aircraft to land for safety reasons
D States can only require overflying aircraft to land for security reasons
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
4) If you are following the semicircular level system, which of the following magnetic tracks would you be flying VFR at FL85?
A 020
B 150
C 360
D 220
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
5) What is the speed limit for VFR traffic at 2500 ft?
A 100 kts
B 140 kts
C 250 kts
D Unlimited
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) Ignoring any stubs, what is the diameter of a MATZ?
A 2 nautical miles
B 5 nautical miles
C 8 nautical miles
D 10 nautical miles
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/matz_rtfq.htm
7) Which of the following pilot maintenance procedures is NOT permitted under the Air Navigation (General) Regulations?
A replacement of batteries
B replacement of a VHF communication transceiver
C replacement of safety belts or safety harnesses
D replacement of a VOR receiver
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
8) Air Traffic Controllers may close a licensed aerodrome in certain conditions. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A ATC may close the aerodrome if the landing area is unfit
B ATC may close the aerodrome if essential facilities have failed
C Providing that details have been publicised by NOTAM, ATC may close the aerodrome for any reason
D ATC may close the aerodrome if, in their opinion, weather conditions have significantly deteriorated
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
9) What minimum height are you required to maintain when overflying a large open-air gathering of 1000 people or more?
A 1000 m
B 500 ft
C 1000 ft
D 3000 m
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/rule5amended.htm
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