13) What is 'clutch QFE'?
A A QFE setting that is the lowest forecast QFE for that aerodrome
B The average value for QFE in a combined MATZ (CMATZ)
C A QFE setting that is suspected to be inaccurate
D The lowest value QFE in a combined MATZ (CMATZ)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
14) A pilot is (correctly) transmitting the transponder code 3612. The pilot is transmitting:
A an ATC assigned 'squawk' code
B the condition of distress
C the condition of radio failure
D the standard UK conspicuity code for normal operations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
15) A person on the ground is struck by an object that has become detached from a aircraft in flight. (The aircraft's flight is not impeded.) This occurrence is defined by ICAO as:
A a reportable occurrence
B a serious incident
C an aircraft accident
D a reportable incident
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) What are the vertical dimensions of a MATZ stub?
A From the surface to 2000 ft above aerodrome level
B From the surface to 3000 ft above aerodrome level
C From 1000 ft to 2000 ft above aerodrome level
D From 1000 ft to 3000 ft above aerodrome level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
17) A Certificate of Release to Service is required when:
A any part of the aircraft has been overhauled, replaced or modified
B the aircraft is due for a service
C the aircraft is permitted an extension to its normal service interval
D the aircraft is passed from the owner to the service engineer(s)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) In order to revalidate a single engine piston class rating by experience, within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating a holder of a PPL(A) licence is required to undertake a training flight with an instructor and complete:
A 12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 12 take-offs and landings
B 6 hours of flight time, 3 hours as pilot in command, 6 take-offs and landings
C 12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 3 take-offs and landings
D 18 hours of flight time, 12 hours as pilot in command, 6 take-offs and landings
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
19) For the purposes of customs and other examinations under the terms of the Chicago Convention, a contracting State:
A must require aircraft entering its territory to land at a customs aerodrome
B must require all aircraft to land at a designated 'port of entry'
C must specify which customs aerodrome is to be used by inbound aircraft
D may require aircraft entering its territory to land at a customs aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
20) On approach to landing during your first solo, Air Traffic Control (ATC) pass you the message, "Golf Romeo Juliet, Cleared to land, surface wind 300 at 10 knots. What should you reply?
A Landing, wind 300 at 10, Golf Romeo Juliet
B Golf Romeo Juliet is cleared to land with the wind at 10 knots
C Roger, Golf Romeo Juliet
D Cleared to land, Golf Romeo Juliet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
The primary objective of accident investigation is to:
A prevent accidents and incidents
B prevent accidents and incidents and provide legal evidence for any prosecution
C prevent accidents and incidents and establish liability
D provide the manufacturer with investigation data to improve design
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
2) What is the special transponder code, selected 5 minutes before parachute dropping begins and operated until the parachutists are estimated to have reached the ground?
A 7600
B 0033
C 2000
D 7003
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
3) Powered aircraft must give way to:
A other powered aircraft towing other aircraft or objects
B airships, gliders and balloons
C other powered aircraft
D other powered aircraft towing other aircraft or objects, airships, gliders and balloons
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) What does a single yellow diagonal on a red square mean when displayed in the signals square of an aerodrome?
A Pilots must exercise special care when landing
B Landing prohibited at this time
C Landing permitted in emergency only
D Runway is closed at all times
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
5) Operators of non-complex aircraft are required to keep:
A an aircraft logbook
B an engine logbook
C a propeller logbook
D both an aircraft logbook and an engine logbook
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
6) On what colour paper would you expect to find an aeronautical information circular (AIC) concerning administration matters?
A Green
B Yellow
C Blue
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
7) Which of the following situations grant an exemption from any low flying prohibition for an aircraft operating in accordance with normal aviation practice at a Government or licensed aerodrome?
A An aircraft that is taking off or landing
B An aircraft that is practising approaches to landing
C An aircraft that is checking navigational aids or procedures
D All of the above situations grant an exemption from any low flying prohibition
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
8) The altimeter reading with a pressure setting of 1013 hPa describes your:
A height above aerodrome level
B altitude above aerodrome level
C distance above that pressure level
D altitude above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
9) You are flying at FL55. What is the altitude of your aircraft if the QNH is 1008 hPa?
A 5200 ft
B 5350 ft
C 5650 ft
D 5750 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
10) A Certificate of Airworthiness will cease to be valid, if:
A the aircraft enters a State different to the State of issue
B the aircraft (or any of its equipment) is repaired or modified other than in an approved manner
C the Certificate of Registration is not attached to it
D a navigation light is discovered to be unserviceable during a pre-flight inspection
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) Occasionally at night you will see an aerodrome beacon flashing white and green alternately. What does this mean?
A The aerodrome is PPR only
B It indicates the location of the aerodrome
C It indicates the location and identifies the name of a civilian aerodrome
D It indicates the location and identifies the name of a government aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
12) You are flying VFR in Class E airspace. Which of the following statements is true?
A You will be separated from other VFR flights
B You will be separated from IFR flights
C You will receive traffic information about other VFR flights
D You will receive traffic information as far as is practical
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
13) In order to revalidate a single engine piston class rating by experience, within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating a holder of a PPL(A) licence is required to undertake a training flight with an instructor and complete:
A 12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 12 take-offs and landings
B 6 hours of flight time, 3 hours as pilot in command, 6 take-offs and landings
C 12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 3 take-offs and landings
D 18 hours of flight time, 12 hours as pilot in command, 6 take-offs and landings
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) For how long are you required to keep a logbook?
A One year after the date of the first entry
B One year after the date of the last entry
C Two years after the date of the last entry
D Two years after the date of the first entry
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) You leave the dentist at 0900 having had a tooth filling under a local anaesthetic. Assuming that you feel fine, how soon can you fly?
A 1200 the same day
B 1500 the same day
C 2100 the same day
D 0900 the next day
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) An Air Traffic Controller can close a licensed aerodrome if:
A weather conditions have significantly deteriorated making landing unsafe
B the runway surface becomes flooded
C essential facilities have failed
D any of the above conditions apply
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
17) If you are flying VFR, and wish to comply with the semicircular rule, which of the following would be your correct level if you were flying westbound?
A Odd thousands of feet (i.e. FL30, FL50)
B Even thousands of feet (i.e. FL40, FL60)
C Odd thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL35, FL55)
D Even thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL45, FL65)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
18) After landing in a remote area, you decide to lay out a ground signal to indicate you require assistance. What is this signal?
A The letter X
B The letter S
C The letter A
D The letter V
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
19) Prior to departing the aerodrome for a cross country navigation exercise, you should check the altimeter by setting:
A the Regional Pressure Setting and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
B aerodrome QFE and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
C 1013 hPa and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
D aerodrome QNH and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
20) In the AIP, where would you find information on specific aerodromes?
A ENR
B GEN
C AIC
D AD
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
With respect to airspace classification requirements, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class E airspace below FL100?
A Nothing
B VHF-COM
C VHF-COM and NAV
D VHF-COM and Transponder (with Mode Charlie)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/airspace.htm
2) What do two diagonal yellow bars in the shape of a cross on a red square on the signals area indicate?
A The position of the glider tow rope dropping area
B Caution should be exercised as surfaces are rough
C Runway has poor surfaces. Do not land in any circumstance
D Landing prohibited
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
3) Unless otherwise indicated, circuits are normally flown in a:
A left hand pattern
B right hand pattern
C straight in approach
D left hand pattern unless there is a red flag flying in the signals square
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
4) Which of the following is the correct vertical limit of an ATZ?
A 2000 ft above aerodrome level
B 2000 ft above mean sea level
C 2000 ft above average ground level
D 3000 ft above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
5) An intercepting aircraft indicates that you are to follow. How do you signal that you have understood and will comply?
A Rock your wings and follow the other aircraft
B Switch on your navigation lights and follow the other aircraft
C Flash your landing light once and then follow the other aircraft
D Make small changes in pitch attitude to 'nod' your assent
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
6) As part of your pre-flight check for a night flight, you discover that the green starboard navigation light has failed. Which of the following statements is in compliance with the Rules of the Air?
A The aircraft may depart from the aerodrome without restriction
B Approval to continue from Air Traffic Control is required prior to departure
C The flight may not depart from the aerodrome until the light is repaired or replaced
D The flight may continue providing that the aircraft operator (or owner) is informed
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
7) A person on the ground is struck by an object that has become detached from a aircraft in flight. (The aircraft's flight is not impeded.) This occurrence is defined by ICAO as:
A a reportable occurrence
B a serious incident
C an aircraft accident
D a reportable incident
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
8) You are reviewing an Air Information Circular (AIC) concerning safety related topics. On what colour paper is this printed?
A Blue
B Pink
C Cream
D Yellow
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
9) On approach to landing during your first solo, Air Traffic Control (ATC) pass you the message, "Golf Romeo Juliet, Cleared to land, surface wind 300 at 10 knots. What should you reply?
A Landing, wind 300 at 10, Golf Romeo Juliet
B Golf Romeo Juliet is cleared to land with the wind at 10 knots
C Roger, Golf Romeo Juliet
D Cleared to land, Golf Romeo Juliet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
10) How does a typical light aircraft transponder operating in Mode C know it's vertical position?
A It receives a feed from the altimeter which identifies the altitude currently displayed
B An altitude encoder transmits the current pressure altitude using 1013.25 hPa
C It receives a feed from the altimeter which is then corrected to the local QNH
D A sender unit transmits a pulse to the ground which is used to determine the vertical position
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) You see a red navigation light out to your right whilst flying at night, on a constant relative bearing. Which of the following is correct?
A The aircraft is flying away from you
B There is a risk of collision
C There is no risk of collision
D There is a risk of collision but you have priority in this situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
12) You encounter severe windshear and low level turbulence on approach to an aerodrome. According to Rule 4, what should you do?
A There is no legal requirement to do anything
B A report must be made to London or Scottish Information immediately
C A report must be made to Air Traffic Control as soon as possible
D A report should be made to Air Traffic Control after landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) The altimeter reading with a pressure setting of 1013 hPa describes your:
A height above aerodrome level
B altitude above aerodrome level
C distance above that pressure level
D altitude above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
14) For the award of an EASA Private Pilot's Licence, how many hours solo experience must you have logged?
A 5 hours
B 10 hours
C No specific requirement providing training is completed
D Not less than 10 hours, up to a maximum of 100 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
15) What height must the registration mark be on the fuselage of a fixed wing aircraft?
A 30 cm
B 50 cm
C 60 cm
D 75 cm
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
16) How soon after a flight must your logbook entry be completed?
A As soon as is reasonably practical
B Within 12 hours of completion of the flight
C Within 48 hours of landing
D Within 24 hours of landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
17) Which of the following statements regarding aerobatic manoeuvres over a congested area is true?
A Aerobatic manoeuvres are not permitted
B Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are at 3000 ft or higher
C Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are able to 'land clear' if required
D Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you have consent of the appropriate ATC unit
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) In which of the following airspace types would a VFR flight always be separated from all other traffic?
A Class D
B Class C
C Class B
D Class A
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
19) When approaching to land at an aerodrome below a TMA or CTA, what altimeter setting should be used when flying below the transition altitude to avoid entering controlled airspace?
A Aerodrome QNH
B The Regional Pressure Setting
C Aerodrome QFE
D 1013 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
20) You leave the dentist at 0900 having had a tooth filling under a local anaesthetic. Assuming that you feel fine, how soon can you fly?
A 1200 the same day
B 1500 the same day
C 2100 the same day
D 0900 the next day
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
A Royal flight is to take place entirely in Class G airspace. Which of the following statements is correct?
A The airspace will remain Class G but details of the flight will be promulgated by NOTAM
B Temporary Class B airspace will be established along the route
C Temporary Class D airspace will be established along the route
D Temporary Class A airspace will be established along the route
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/royalflights.htm
2) Which of the following statements concerning altimeters is true?
A In air colder than ISA, an altimeter will under-read the true altitude
B In air colder than ISA, an altimeter will over-read the true altitude
C In air hotter than ISA, an altimeter will over-read the true altitude
D Normal temperature variations do not affect altimeter accuracy
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
3) A pilot is following the coastline and transiting controlled airspace in accordance with ATC instructions. Which of the following statements is correct?
A The pilot should keep the coastline on their left
B The pilot should keep the coastline on their right
C The pilot is not required to keep the coastline on any particular side
D The pilot should keep the coastline on their left unless above the transition altitude
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
4) In order to carry passengers, a PPL(A) licence holder must complete 3 take-offs and landings as sole manipulator of the controls within a defined time. That time period is witin the preceding:
A 30 days
B 60 days
C 90 days
D calendar month
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
5) An aircraft is defined as being in 'flight' from:
A engine startup to engine shutdown
B the moment of take-off to when the landing gear touches down
C when it first moves to when it comes to rest after the flight
D the start of the take-off roll until it touches down for landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) If a pilot selects a transponder code of 7000, what condition is being reported?
A Distress
B Unlawful interference
C Radio failure
D Normal operations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
7) A person on the ground is struck by an object that has become detached from a aircraft in flight. (The aircraft's flight is not impeded.) This occurrence is defined by ICAO as:
A a reportable occurrence
B a serious incident
C an aircraft accident
D a reportable incident
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
8) In the absence of written permission from the organiser of an open-air assembly of more than 1000 persons, an aircraft may not land at a landing site (other than an aerodrome) within:
A 1000 m of the assembly
B 2000 m of the assembly
C 3000 m of the assembly
D 5000 m of the assembly
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) Identify the type of airspace from the following description: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All flights are subject to ATC service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR and VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information about other VFR flights.
A Class B
B Class C
C Class D
D Class E
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
10) A pilot may sign the second part of a Duplicate Inspection Certificate for:
A all repairs completed by a qualified engineer
B a minor adjustment to a control when away from base
C an annual service
D routine minor services only
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) Having just landed at a grass airfield with no Air Traffic Control (ATC), on which side of the landing area would you normally expect to turn off?
A The left
B The right
C It doesn't matter
D You should continue to the end of the landing area before commencing your turn
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
12) EASA aircraft types that qualify for an EASA Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) are issued with a Certificate of Airworthiness, validated annually with:
A an Operators Check Certificate (OCC)
B an Air Operators Certificate (AOC) to SubPart M of the regulations
C an Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC)
D a Certificate of Maintenance Review (CMR)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) The Rules of the Air apply to:
A all aircraft in the UK irrespective of their State of registry
B all UK aircraft wherever in the world they may be
C all foreign aircraft in UK airspace
D all of the above situations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
14) You are planning to take a friend for a flight, which will land 40 minutes after sunset. How many take-offs and landings must you have completed (as sole manipulator of the controls) in the last 90 days prior to this flight?
A One (which must have been completed at night)
B Three
C Three (of which one must have been at night)
D Four (three of which must be by day, and one by night)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/paxatnight.htm
15) An accurate timing device is required for VFR flight. What other items of equipment must be carried as a minimum on VFR flights?
A A compass, GPS, turn coordinator, a vertical speed indicator and an altimeter
B A compass, a turn coordinator, and an airspeed indicator
C An altimeter, a compass, and an airspeed indicator
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, a compass, and an airspeed indicator
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) If you receive a general anaesthetic, for how long must you wait before you can fly as pilot in command?
A At least 48 hours
B At least 12 hours
C At least 6 hours
D At least 24 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
17) The Regional Pressure Setting is the:
A highest current QNH for aerodromes within that region
B highest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
C average forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
D lowest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
18) What is the width of a MATZ 'stub'?
A 2 nm
B 4 nm
C 5 nm
D 6 nm
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
19) If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what should you do?
A Attempt to notify the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit
B Make a Mayday call on 121.5 MHz
C Take evading action
D Attempt to make an immediate landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
20) A white dumb-bell with black stripes at each end indicates that:
A you may manoeuvre on any part of the aerodrome
B take-off and landing must be on hard surfaces
C all movement must be made on hard surfaces
D movement of aircraft on hard surfaces is not permitted
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
Under the terms of the Chicago Convention, who has the duty to ensure that aircraft in flight comply with the rules and regulations?
A The State of registry of the aircraft
B The State over which the flight takes place
C The State of registry of the aircraft and any State entered by the aircraft
D The pilot in command
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
2) Which of the following altimeter settings expresses your vertical position above mean sea level?
A QFE
B QNH
C QDR
D QNE
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
3) When planning to operate at an unlicensed aerodrome, not listed in the AIP you are:
A advised to obtain permission and airfield information from the aerodrome operator
B required by law to file a flight plan for any flight involving an unlicensed aerodrome
C able to take-off or land without requiring permission from the aerodrome operator
D not required to obtain prior permission to land
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
4) What is the name given to the lowest flight level available for cruising above the transition altitude?
A The transition layer
B The transition level
C The initial level
D The primary level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) With respect to a particular aircraft, how are operating limitations or other information necessary for the safe conduct of flight made available?
A As an annex to the Certificate of Registration
B As an annex to the Certificate of Airworthiness
C In the Flight Manual, on aircraft placards, and in other documentation as required
D In Pilot's Manuals and other documentation available online
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
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