20) An aircraft shall not be flown in simulated instrument flight conditions unless:
A it is fitted with dual controls
B a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
C it is fitted with dual controls and a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
D it is fitted with dual controls and a competent observer is carried
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
1) A temporary controlled airway is established between two aerodromes for the purpose of a Royal flight. This is normally established ____ minutes before ETD at the departure airfield until ____ minutes after ETA at the destination.
A 15, 30
B 30, 30
C 30, 60
D 60, 60
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
2) How soon after a near miss ('AirProx') should the incident be reported in writing using the CAA form numbered 1094?
A Within 7 days
B Within 10 days
C Within 28 days
D As soon as is 'reasonably practical'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
3) What altitude is the transition altitude over most of the UK set at?
A 2000 ft
B 3000 ft
C 5000 ft
D 6000 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
4) Entries in a personal flying logbook must be made in:
A ink or pencil
B ink or indelible pencil
C ink only
D black ink only
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) What is the standard ground to air search and rescue visual signal used to indicate the meaning 'affirmative' (or 'yes')?
A A letter 'Y' laid out on the ground
B A letter 'A' laid out on the ground
C A large tick shape laid out on the ground
D A plus sign laid out on the ground
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
6) An aircraft taxying to the parking area is converging with a vehicle used for runway inspections. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The aircraft must give way
B The vehicle must give way to the aircraft
C That which has the other on its left must give way
D That which has the other on its right must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) What is the recommended procedure regarding the use of line features for navigation?
A You should fly on the right where possible
B Always fly on the left of any line feature
C You should fly down the centre of the feature
D You should not follow line features as this is poor navigational practice
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
8) The Regional Pressure Setting is the:
A highest current QNH for aerodromes within that region
B highest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
C average forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
D lowest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
9) You wish to simulate instrument flight conditions for training purposes. Which of the following statements is correct?
A A safety pilot is required, but the aircraft need not be fitted with dual controls
B A safety pilot is required and a third person (competent observer) may also be required
C A safety pilot must be carried but is not restricted in their choice of seating position
D A competent observer (who need not be a pilot) should be carried
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/Rule23and24.htm
10) When flying more than 50nm from land, ICAO Annex 6 states that single engined aircraft shall be equipped with:
A liferafts and lifejackets
B lifejackets
C hydrostatically released liferafts
D lifejackets and a liferaft equipped with an emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) What period of time must engine and propeller logbooks be kept for, after the destruction or withdrawal from service of the unit to which the logbook refers?
A 12 months
B 24 months
C 30 months
D 36 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
12) When you are on the correct glide slope, using a PAPI (Precision Approach Path Indicator), you will see:
A one red light and one white light
B three green lights
C two red and two white lights
D two white lights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) Which of the following altimeter settings expresses your vertical position above mean sea level?
A QFE
B QNH
C QDR
D QNE
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
14) Is flying training permitted at unlicensed aerodromes?
A No
B Yes, providing the aircraft has a maximum total weight authorised of no more than 5700 kg
C Yes, providing the aircraft has a maximum total weight authorised of no more than 2730 kg
D Yes, providing the aerodrome operator has given permission
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/unlicensedaerodromes.htm
15) 'Long final' is deemed to be when you are:
A approximately 6 nautical miles from the runway threshold
B 10 nautical miles from the runway threshold
C less than 4 nautical miles from the runway threshold
D between 4 and 8 nautical miles from the runway threshold
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
16) Which of the following must always be read back in full to an ATC controller?
A Runway in use
B Wind direction
C Traffic reports
D A request to 'report final'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
17) For the purposes of customs and other examinations under the terms of the Chicago Convention, a contracting State:
A must require aircraft entering its territory to land at a customs aerodrome
B must require all aircraft to land at a designated 'port of entry'
C must specify which customs aerodrome is to be used by inbound aircraft
D may require aircraft entering its territory to land at a customs aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
18) Unless otherwise defined by the relevant authority, the definition of 'night' is the time between:
A the end of evening civil twilight and the start of morning civil twilight the next day
B sunset and sunrise
C twilight and dawn
D the start of evening civil twilight and the end of morning civil twilight the next day
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
19) In accordance with Rule 8, who is responsible for collision avoidance?
A Air Traffic Control
B Air Traffic Control (when providing a Basic Service)
C The pilot in command
D Air Traffic Control (when providing a Deconfliction Service)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/atsocas.htm
20) Your aerodrome elevation is 89 ft, and the QFE you have just been given is 997 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QNH to be?
A 1011 hectopascals
B 1000 hectopascals
C 995 hectopascals
D 992 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
1) You are intending to fly in accordance with the semicircular rule and anticipate that your magnetic track will be 060. The QNH is 1023 hPa. Which of the following is your lowest available flight level?
A FL 30
B FL 35
C FL 50
D FL 55
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
2) At 4000 ft, what vertical and horizontal separation from cloud are you required to maintain? (You are a basic PPL, flying VFR)
A You must remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
B 1000 ft vertical separation, 1500 ft horizontal separation
C 1000 ft vertical and horizontal separation
D 1000 ft vertical separation, 1500 m horizontal separation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
3) What is the minimum level of medical certification required for an EASA PPL(A) student pilot to undertake their first solo flight?
A A self declaration of fitness, completed by the student
B A self declaration of fitness, completed by the student and countersigned by their doctor
C A Class 1 medical
D A Class 2 medical
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) You are flying in a control zone under Special VFR (SVFR). Who is responsible for maintaining terrain clearance?
A The pilot in command
B The air traffic controller
C Both the pilot and the controller in partnership
D The pilot, unless the aircraft is in receipt of a 'deconfliction' service
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
5) When overtaking another aircraft at night, the manoeuvre is considered complete when:
A the overtaking aircraft is passed and clear
B the overtaking aircraft passes abeam
C the overtaken aircraft can see the white navigation light of the overtaking aircraft
D the overtaking aircraft can no longer see the white navigation light of the overtaken aircraft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
6) At night, what light signals must a glider show?
A Similar lights to a powered aircraft, or a single red light
B Similar lights to a powered aircraft, or a single flashing white light
C A red port light, and a green starboard light only.
D Similar lights to a powered aircraft, or a single fixed white light
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
7) A pilot is following the coastline and transiting controlled airspace in accordance with ATC instructions. Which of the following statements is correct?
A The pilot should keep the coastline on their left
B The pilot should keep the coastline on their right
C The pilot is not required to keep the coastline on any particular side
D The pilot should keep the coastline on their left unless above the transition altitude
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
8) What does a red square with a single yellow diagonal stripe on the signals area indicate?
A The state of the manoevering area is poor
B Aircraft should land in emergency only
C Runway is closed. Do not land in any circumstance
D Do not taxi on the runway without ATC permission
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) If you need to set a different transponder code, what is the primary reason for setting the transponder to 'standby' before changing your squawk code?
A To avoid accidentally transmitting an inappropriate transponder code
B It damages the machine if settings are changed whilst transmitting
C To avoid broadcasting a series of changing codes whilst you change settings
D To avoid causing confusion to other aircraft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
10) What is the usual altimeter setting for flight outside controlled airspace whilst en route at 2000 ft?
A QFE
B The Regional Pressure Setting
C 1013 hPa
D The QNH for your destination aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) Aerodrome elevation is usually described as:
A the highest point on the aerodrome
B the highest point on the apron
C the highest point on the landing area
D the average height of the aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
12) Whilst in level flight, you see another aircraft on your port wing at the same altitude and on a converging course. Who has priority, and what should you do?
A You have priority - you should maintain your course and speed
B They have priority - you should turn and pass to their rear
C Neither of you have priority - you should take evasive action to avoid a collision
D They have priority - you should aim to climb or descend slightly to avoid a collision
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
13) A request for a MATZ penetration should be made:
A at least 15 nm or 5 minutes flying time from the MATZ boundary
B as soon as you are within 3 nm of the zone boundary
C prior to departure
D no less than 3 minutes prior to reaching the boundary
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions
B carry a 'competent observer'
C hold an Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) rating (or higher qualification)
D inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a 'competent observer'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
15) Which of the following pilot maintenance procedures is NOT permitted under the Air Navigation (General) Regulations?
A replacement of batteries
B replacement of a VHF communication transceiver
C replacement of safety belts or safety harnesses
D replacement of a VOR receiver
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
16) Which of the following altimeter settings would give you height above an aerodrome?
A QNE
B QNH
C QGH
D QFE
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
17) Which of the following need NOT be recorded in your personal flying logbook?
A Particulars of flight simulator tests
B Flights in which you were 'supernumerary'
C The type and registration mark of the aircraft
D Flights in which you were under training
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) The primary objective of accident investigation is to:
A prevent accidents and incidents
B prevent accidents and incidents and provide legal evidence for any prosecution
C prevent accidents and incidents and establish liability
D provide the manufacturer with investigation data to improve design
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
19) You are flying VFR in Class D airspace. Which of the following statements is true?
A You will be separated from other VFR flights
B You will be separated from other VFR and IFR traffic
C You will be separated from IFR traffic
D You will receive traffic information about other VFR flights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
20) Two aircraft are both on a final approach. Under normal circumstances, which has priority?
A The aircraft that is lower
B The aircraft that is on 'long final'
C The aircraft that is larger
D The aircraft that has a higher approach speed
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
1) Which of the following classifications of airspace concern 'Advisory Routes'?
A D and E
B F
C G
D C
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
2) What is the difference encountered when comparing VFR flight in Class D airspace with VFR flight in Class E airspace?
A In Class D airspace VFR flights are separated, in Class E they are not
B In Class D airspace, VFR flights are separated from IFR flights, in Class E they are not
C ATC service is not required for VFR flights in Class E airspace
D In Class E airspace VFR flights are unable to receive flight information about other VFR flights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
3) According to the Rules of the Air, pilots wishing to practice an instrument approach in VMC with simulated instrument flight conditions must:
A carry a safety pilot in a second control seat
B carry a competent observer and notify ATC of their intentions
C carry a competent observer and obtain prior permission from ATC
D carry a competent observer who is able to communicate directly with the pilot
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/Rule23and24.htm
4) At what distance should you call 'final' on approach to a landing?
A 4 nautical miles or less
B 5 nautical miles or more
C 10 nautical miles
D 6 nautical miles or less
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
5) In addition to the lights displayed by a powered aircraft at night, an airship is additionally required to show:
A a single fixed red light visible from all directions
B a single fixed white nose light visible 110 degrees either side of dead ahead
C a flashing white light in the nose cone
D a single flashing red light visible from all directions
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
6) What is the usual altimeter setting for flight outside controlled airspace whilst en route at 2000 ft?
A QFE
B The Regional Pressure Setting
C 1013 hPa
D The QNH for your destination aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) If an aircraft is on an international flight, Annex 7 of the Chicago Convention requires that it carries:
A certificates of registration and airworthiness
B personal logbooks for all crew members
C third party liability insurance documents
D all of the above certificates, documents and logbooks
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
8) The holder of a PPL(A) licence shall not act as pilot in command of an aeroplane unless they have:
A a valid and appropriate class or type rating
B a valid type rating
C a valid and appropriate type rating
D a valid class rating
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) A white dumb-bell with black stripes at each end indicates that:
A you may manoeuvre on any part of the aerodrome
B take-off and landing must be on hard surfaces
C all movement must be made on hard surfaces
D movement of aircraft on hard surfaces is not permitted
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
10) Article 9 of the Air Navigation Order sets out the purposes for which an aircraft may fly. In what Certificate of Airworthiness category must an aircraft used for rental be?
A Special
B Private
C Aerial Work
D Transport
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
11) You see a red navigation light out to your right whilst flying at night, on a constant relative bearing. Which of the following is correct?
A The aircraft is flying away from you
B There is a risk of collision
C There is no risk of collision
D There is a risk of collision but you have priority in this situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
12) An aircraft is defined as being in 'flight' from:
A engine startup to engine shutdown
B the moment of take-off to when the landing gear touches down
C when it first moves to when it comes to rest after the flight
D the start of the take-off roll until it touches down for landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) You are reviewing some aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) which are printed on yellow paper. What subject do they concern?
A Operational matters including ATS facilities and requirements
B Safety related topics
C Maps and Charts
D UK Airspace Restrictions
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) Which of the following is the correct radius of an ATZ?
A Always 2 miles radius
B Always 2.5 miles radius
C Possibly 2 or 2.5 miles radius depending on the aerodrome
D 1.68 nm radius, centred on the mid point of the aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) Your aerodrome elevation is -11 ft, and the QFE you have just been given is 992 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QNH to be?
A 1011 hectopascals
B 1020 hectopascals
C 992 hectopascals
D 989 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) If an EASA PPL(A) licence holder is required to undergo a surgical operation, they are required to:
A advise their general practitioner
B seek the advice of the CAA or an Authorised Medical Examiner without undue delay
C seek the advice of the hospital who will be performing the procedure
D notify the CAA if they are do be hospitalised for more than 48 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) What is a NOTAMN?
A A NOTAM that has been nullified (cancelled)
B A NOTAM that has new information
C A NOTAM that is not valid
D A NOTAM that has the identifier 'November'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) What altitude is the transition altitude over most of the UK set at?
A 2000 ft
B 3000 ft
C 5000 ft
D 6000 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
19) Powered aircraft must give way to:
A other powered aircraft towing other aircraft or objects
B airships, gliders and balloons
C other powered aircraft
D other powered aircraft towing other aircraft or objects, airships, gliders and balloons
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
20) A pilot is permitted to carry out certain repairs to aircraft operated in the 'Private' category. Which of the following repair is NOT permitted by the regulations?
A replacement of landing gear tyres
B replacement of a combined COM/NAV unit
C replacement of safety belts or safety harnesses
D replacement of unserviceable sparking plugs
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
1) Which of the following statements regarding aerobatic manoeuvres over a congested area is true?
A Aerobatic manoeuvres are not permitted
B Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are at 3000 ft or higher
C Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are able to 'land clear' if required
D Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you have consent of the appropriate ATC unit
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
2) Student pilots flying solo without a RT licence are:
A not permitted to use the radio
B permitted to use the radio for emergencies only
C permitted to use the radio as required
D permitted to use the radio providing that they have written authorisation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
3) What do two diagonal yellow bars in the shape of a cross on a red square on the signals area indicate?
A The position of the glider tow rope dropping area
B Caution should be exercised as surfaces are rough
C Runway has poor surfaces. Do not land in any circumstance
D Landing prohibited
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) You are flying VFR on a true track of 176, with a westerly variation of 6 degrees. Which of the following is an appropriate flight level if you are following the semicircular rule?
A FL 65
B FL 45
C FL 55
D FL 60
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
5) A person on the ground is struck by an object that has become detached from a aircraft in flight. (The aircraft's flight is not impeded.) This occurrence is defined by ICAO as:
A a reportable occurrence
B a serious incident
C an aircraft accident
D a reportable incident
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) How many hours of Pilot in Command (PIC) time may be credited towards a PPL (A) licence for those already holding a licence for helicopters, three axis microlights or gliders?
A 10% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 10 hours
B 10% of the PIC time
C 5% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 20 hours
D 5% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 10 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
7) In accordance with Rule 8, who is responsible for collision avoidance?
A Air Traffic Control
B Air Traffic Control (when providing a Basic Service)
C The pilot in command
D Air Traffic Control (when providing a Deconfliction Service)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/atsocas.htm
8) Which of the following need NOT be recorded in your personal flying logbook?
A Particulars of flight simulator tests
B Flights in which you were 'supernumerary'
C The type and registration mark of the aircraft
D Flights in which you were under training
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
9) What arc of visibility should the starboard wingtip light exhibit?
A From dead ahead to 120 degrees to starboard
B From dead ahead to 70 degrees to starboard
C From dead ahead to 90 degrees to starboard
D From dead ahead to 110 degrees to starboard
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
10) An aircraft taxying to the parking area is converging with a vehicle used for runway inspections. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The aircraft must give way
B The vehicle must give way to the aircraft
C That which has the other on its left must give way
D That which has the other on its right must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) When Mode C is selected, a transponder can report altitude. The reported altitude is:
A the altitude displayed on the altimeter
B the pressure altitude using 1013.25 hPa
C the altitude using regional QNH
D the altitude using aerodrome QFE
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
12) When approaching to land at an aerodrome below a TMA or CTA, what altimeter setting should be used when flying below the transition altitude to avoid entering controlled airspace?
A Aerodrome QNH
B The Regional Pressure Setting
C Aerodrome QFE
D 1013 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
13) Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions
B carry a 'competent observer'
C hold an Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) rating (or higher qualification)
D inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a 'competent observer'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
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