4) What in-flight visibility are you required to have in order to fly Special VFR (sVFR) in a control zone as a basic PPL (A)?
A 1800 m
B 3 km
C 10 km
D 1500 m
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
5) Where are the approved operating limitations, within which an aircraft is considered airworthy located?
A In the Flight Manual and on operating placards affixed to the aircraft
B In the Light Aircraft Maintenance Schedule for that aircraft
C In the Certificate of Registration
D In Pilot Handbooks available for that aircraft type
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
6) Which of the following need NOT be recorded in your personal flying logbook?
A Particulars of flight simulator tests
B Flights in which you were 'supernumerary'
C The type and registration mark of the aircraft
D Flights in which you were under training
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) You wish to carry passengers during daylight hours. How many take-offs and landing must you have completed in the last 90 days?
A Three, as the sole manipulator of the controls
B Three, in the company of an instructor
C One, as the sole manipulator of the controls
D Three, as pilot in command of which at least one must be in the company of an instructor
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
8) You are approaching an aerodrome at an altitude of 1470 ft, with QNH 990 hectopascals set. You set 989 hectopascals QFE for landing. What will your altimeter read now?
A 1455 feet
B 1440 feet
C 1500 feet
D 1680 feet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
9) What does a white double cross indicate, when displayed in the signals square of an aerodrome?
A Runway surfaces are poor
B Gliding is taking place at this aerodrome
C Parachuting is taking place at this aerodrome
D Runway is closed - do not land here
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
10) You visit the doctor who removes a small mole under local anaesthetic. How long should you wait before flying?
A At least 12 hours
B At least 18 hours
C At least 24 hours
D At least 48 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
11) You are in level flight (VFR, outside of controlled airspace) on a heading of 280, and due to wind drift your magnetic track is 265. The QNH is 1010 hPa. If you wish to comply with the semicircular rule, you should fly at:
A an indicated 5500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1013 hPa
B an indicated 5500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1010 hPa
C an indicated 4500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1010 hPa
D an indicated 4500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1013 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
12) The Rules of the Air apply to:
A all aircraft in the UK irrespective of their State of registry
B all UK aircraft wherever in the world they may be
C all foreign aircraft in UK airspace
D all of the above situations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
13) Whilst in level flight, you see another aircraft on your port wing at the same altitude and on a converging course. Who has priority, and what should you do?
A You have priority - you should maintain your course and speed
B They have priority - you should turn and pass to their rear
C Neither of you have priority - you should take evasive action to avoid a collision
D They have priority - you should aim to climb or descend slightly to avoid a collision
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) If an aircraft from one ICAO contracting State lands in another State, certain items are exempt from customs duties. Which of the following best describes what these items are?
A Fuel, lubricating oils, spare parts and regular equipment remaining on board
B Fuel contained in aircraft tanks and spare containers of lubricating and hydraulic oils
C Fuel and any spare parts that are specific to that aircraft providing that they remain on board
D All items that remain on board for the duration of the period spent in the foreign contracting State
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
15) Leaving aside any additional requirements, which of the following lists of items contains only those considered essential equipment for VFR flight?
A An altimeter, a compass and an accurate timing device
B An altimeter, a compass, a vertical speed indicator, and an accurate timing device
C An altimeter, a compass, an airspeed indicator, and an accurate timing device
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, an airspeed indicator, and a compass
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) A pilot may sign the second part of a Duplicate Inspection Certificate for:
A all repairs completed by a qualified engineer
B a minor adjustment to a control when away from base
C an annual service
D routine minor services only
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) For the award of an EASA Private Pilot's Licence, how many hours solo experience must you have logged?
A 5 hours
B 10 hours
C No specific requirement providing training is completed
D Not less than 10 hours, up to a maximum of 100 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) What transponder code would you set to indicate unlawful interference?
A 7500
B 7600
C 7700
D 7000
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
19) At lower levels, approximately how many feet does 1 hectopascal of altimeter setting equate to?
A 40 ft
B 30 ft
C 20 ft
D 37 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
20) What should you do if a wing navigation light fails during a night flight?
A Continue - no action is required
B See if you can conduct an in-flight repair
C Land as soon as is reasonably practical to do so
D Immediately switch off the remaining lights to avoid creating a misleading situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
1) You are intending to fly VFR in accordance with the semicircular rule on a magnetic track of 185. Which of the following is your correct flight level?
A FL 30
B FL 35
C FL 45
D FL 40
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
2) When Mode C is selected, a transponder can report altitude. The reported altitude is:
A the altitude displayed on the altimeter
B the pressure altitude using 1013.25 hPa
C the altitude using regional QNH
D the altitude using aerodrome QFE
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
3) The Rules of the Air apply to:
A all aircraft in the UK irrespective of their State of registry
B all UK aircraft wherever in the world they may be
C all foreign aircraft in UK airspace
D all of the above situations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) Identify the type of airspace from the following description: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. All flights are subject to ATC service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR and VFR flights. VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information about other VFR flights.
A Class B
B Class C
C Class D
D Class E
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) What arc of visibility should the starboard wingtip light exhibit?
A From dead ahead to 120 degrees to starboard
B From dead ahead to 70 degrees to starboard
C From dead ahead to 90 degrees to starboard
D From dead ahead to 110 degrees to starboard
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
6) If you inadvertently enter a restricted or danger area, what should you do?
A Make a level turn and leave the area by the quickest means
B Descend and leave the area by the quickest means
C Climb and maintain your present course until you have crossed the area
D Immediately commence a climb providing you are within 2000ft of the area ceiling
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
7) NOTAMS are circulated by:
A telephone
B first class mail
C the aeronautical teleprinter network
D e-mail
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
8) In the absence of written permission from the organiser of an open-air assembly of more than 1000 persons, an aircraft may not land at a landing site (other than an aerodrome) within:
A 1000 m of the assembly
B 2000 m of the assembly
C 3000 m of the assembly
D 5000 m of the assembly
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) In the United Kingdom, an aircraft flying outside a control zone at night:
A is permitted to operate under SVFR or IFR as required
B must operate under SVFR
C must operate under IFR
D may operate under VFR
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/vfratnight.htm
10) You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 66 ft. The QNH you have been given is 1013 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
A 1011 hectopascals
B 1015 hectopascals
C 1026 hectopascals
D 1016 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
11) What documentation is required in order to tow a glider?
A No documentation is required, but the pilot must be suitably trained and deemed 'competent'
B The Certificate of Registration must expressly permit glider towing
C The Flight Manual must permit this, and a 'Towing Logbook' must be kept
D The Certificate of Airworthiness must include an express provision for this purpose
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
12) How many hours of Pilot in Command (PIC) time may be credited towards a PPL (A) licence for those already holding a licence for helicopters, three axis microlights or gliders?
A 10% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 10 hours
B 10% of the PIC time
C 5% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 20 hours
D 5% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 10 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
13) 'Long final' is deemed to be when you are:
A approximately 6 nautical miles from the runway threshold
B 10 nautical miles from the runway threshold
C less than 4 nautical miles from the runway threshold
D between 4 and 8 nautical miles from the runway threshold
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
14) When flying more than 50nm from land, ICAO Annex 6 states that single engined aircraft shall be equipped with:
A liferafts and lifejackets
B lifejackets
C hydrostatically released liferafts
D lifejackets and a liferaft equipped with an emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
15) Ignoring medical and rating requirements, for how long is an EASA Private Pilot's Licence valid?
A 1 year
B 2 years
C 5 years
D For the life of the holder
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
16) Which of the following pilot maintenance procedures is permitted under the Air Navigation (General) Regulations for aircraft operated in the 'Private' category?
A 'dressing' a minor nick in a propeller
B replacement of landing gear tyres and safety belts or safety harnesses
C replacement of a combined COM/NAV system
D replacement of defective split pin in the flight control system
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) What altitude is the transition altitude over most of the UK set at?
A 2000 ft
B 3000 ft
C 5000 ft
D 6000 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) A pilot is (correctly) transmitting the transponder code 3612. The pilot is transmitting:
A an ATC assigned 'squawk' code
B the condition of distress
C the condition of radio failure
D the standard UK conspicuity code for normal operations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
19) For the purposes of customs and other examinations under the terms of the Chicago Convention, a contracting State:
A must require aircraft entering its territory to land at a customs aerodrome
B must require all aircraft to land at a designated 'port of entry'
C must specify which customs aerodrome is to be used by inbound aircraft
D may require aircraft entering its territory to land at a customs aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
20) For how long is an EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid, if you are 49 years old at the time of the medical?
A 6 months
B 12 months
C 24 months
D 60 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
1) You are flying in a control zone under Special VFR (SVFR). Who is responsible for maintaining terrain clearance?
A The pilot in command
B The air traffic controller
C Both the pilot and the controller in partnership
D The pilot, unless the aircraft is in receipt of a 'deconfliction' service
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
2) What does a continuously flashing white beacon at an aerodrome indicate?
A Runway is not in use
B The location of the aerodrome
C Aircraft require a radio and PPR to land here
D The position of ATC
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
3) An Air Traffic Controller can close a licensed aerodrome if:
A weather conditions have significantly deteriorated making landing unsafe
B the runway surface becomes flooded
C essential facilities have failed
D any of the above conditions apply
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
4) If you elected to fly IFR, how should you describe your vertical position when you are above the transition altitude?
A Height
B Altitude, using the Regional Pressure Setting
C Flight Level
D Altitude, using the QNH for the nearest aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
5) What is a TNW bulletin?
A Advice concerning a terminal navigation waypoint
B Information concerning terminal (aerodrome) notified works
C Advice concerning a temporary navigation waypoint
D A temporary navigation warning
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
6) What is 'clutch QFE'?
A A QFE setting that is the lowest forecast QFE for that aerodrome
B The average value for QFE in a combined MATZ (CMATZ)
C A QFE setting that is suspected to be inaccurate
D The lowest value QFE in a combined MATZ (CMATZ)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
7) What is the correct vertical limit of a MATZ?
A 3000 ft above aerodrome level
B 2000 ft above aerodrome level
C 3000 ft above mean sea level
D 2000 ft above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
8) According to Rule 5 of the Rules of the Air, aircraft intending to drop articles outside of an aerodrome's ATZ are:
A required to obtain CAA permission and are exempt from the 500 ft rule
B exempt from the 500 ft rule and are not required to obtain CAA permission
C not exempt from the 500 ft rule
D exempt from the 500 ft rule providing they are at least 1000 m from any person, vehicle or structure
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) You are intending to fly VFR in accordance with the semicircular rule on a magnetic track of 195. Which of the following is your correct flight level?
A FL 40
B FL 45
C FL 50
D FL 55
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
10) What is the normal transponder conspicuity code in the UK?
A 2000
B 7000
C 7500
D 1200
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) Do the Rules of the Air permit flying in formation?
A Yes, providing that the commanders have agreed to do so
B No
C No, unless an approved course of formation flying has been completed
D Yes, providing that permission from CAA is obtained at least 72 hrs prior to the proposed flight
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
12) At what distance should you call 'final' on approach to a landing?
A 4 nautical miles or less
B 5 nautical miles or more
C 10 nautical miles
D 6 nautical miles or less
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
13) A balloon is required to display what signal at night?
A A double red light of which at least one light is visible from any direction
B A single white light visible in all directions
C A flashing red light
D A single fixed red light visible in all directions
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
14) Ignoring medical and rating requirements, for how long is an EASA Private Pilot's Licence valid?
A 1 year
B 2 years
C 5 years
D For the life of the holder
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
15) When flying more than 50nm from land, ICAO Annex 6 states that single engined aircraft shall be equipped with:
A liferafts and lifejackets
B lifejackets
C hydrostatically released liferafts
D lifejackets and a liferaft equipped with an emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
16) A white dumb-bell displayed on the signals square indicates that:
A aircraft movement is confined to hard surfaces only
B aircraft may only move with permission of ATC
C aircraft movement across the apron is prohibited
D aircraft do not require ATC permission to move on hard surfaces
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
17) How many hours of Pilot in Command (PIC) time may be credited towards a PPL (A) licence for those already holding a licence for helicopters, three axis microlights or gliders?
A 10% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 10 hours
B 10% of the PIC time
C 5% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 20 hours
D 5% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 10 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions
B carry a 'competent observer'
C hold an Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) rating (or higher qualification)
D inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a 'competent observer'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
19) After a flight, when must the technical log for an aircraft in the Public Transport category be completed?
A Before it is flown by the next pilot
B At the end of the day
C Within 12 hours of the flight
D Before it is flown by the next pilot or at the end of the day, whichever is the sooner
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
20) You are reviewing an Air Information Circular (AIC) concerning safety related topics. On what colour paper is this printed?
A Blue
B Pink
C Cream
D Yellow
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
1) The altimeter setting QNH describes your:
A altitude above aerodrome level
B altitude above mean sea level
C pressure level
D height above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
2) Special VFR is a concession that:
A facilitates flights that would otherwise be restricted due to weather
B is at the discretion of the appropriate ATC unit
C facilitates flights that would otherwise be restricted due to weather and is at the discretion of the appropriate ATC unit
D allows aircraft to fly in Class A airspace under VFR
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
3) An obstacle which is 456 feet above ground level will:
A not be listed in the AIP
B be listed in the AIP and must be lit at night
C be listed in the AIP and may be lit at night
D be listed in the AIP and will not be lit at night
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
4) What is the transition layer?
A The airspace above the transition level
B A layer 500 ft thick for extra separation between aircraft
C A layer 1000 ft thick for extra separation between aircraft
D The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
5) If you are following the semicircular level system, which of the following magnetic tracks would you be flying VFR at FL85?
A 020
B 150
C 360
D 220
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
6) What name is given to the area of the aerodrome used for take-off, landing and taxying?
A The apron
B The manoeuvring area
C The taxiway
D The runway
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) Whilst in level flight, you see another aircraft on your port wing at the same altitude and on a converging course. Who has priority, and what should you do?
A You have priority - you should maintain your course and speed
B They have priority - you should turn and pass to their rear
C Neither of you have priority - you should take evasive action to avoid a collision
D They have priority - you should aim to climb or descend slightly to avoid a collision
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
8) In accordance with Rule 5, you are not permitted to fly:
A less than 1000 ft above any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
B less than 500 ft above any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
C closer than 1000 ft from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
D closer than 500 ft from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
9) When flying more than 50nm from land, ICAO Annex 6 states that single engined aircraft shall be equipped with:
A liferafts and lifejackets
B lifejackets
C hydrostatically released liferafts
D lifejackets and a liferaft equipped with an emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
10) The Regional Pressure Setting is the:
A highest current QNH for aerodromes within that region
B highest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
C average forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
D lowest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
11) After landing in a remote area, you decide to lay out a ground signal to indicate you require assistance. What is this signal?
A The letter X
B The letter S
C The letter A
D The letter V
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
12) When overtaking another aircraft on the ground in the UK, you should:
A pass to the left of the other aircraft
B pass to the right of the other aircraft
C pass either side as required, maintaining adequate separation
D pass to the left of nosewheeled aircraft, and to the right of tailwheeled aircraft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) The call sign 'Information' suggests that you are talking to:
A an air Traffic Control (ATC) tower
B an Air / Ground station
C a flight information service officer
D an officer able to provide you with a Traffic Service
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
14) Is a Certificate of Maintenance Review required for an aircraft used for flying training?
A No, because flying training is not classed as 'aerial work'
B No, because flying training is not classified in the 'transport' category
C Yes, because flying training is classed as 'aerial work'
D Yes, because flying training is classified in the 'transport' category
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) If an aircraft from one ICAO contracting State lands in another State, certain items are exempt from customs duties. Which of the following best describes what these items are?
A Fuel, lubricating oils, spare parts and regular equipment remaining on board
B Fuel contained in aircraft tanks and spare containers of lubricating and hydraulic oils
C Fuel and any spare parts that are specific to that aircraft providing that they remain on board
D All items that remain on board for the duration of the period spent in the foreign contracting State
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
16) In addition to the lights displayed by a powered aircraft at night, an airship is additionally required to show:
A a single fixed red light visible from all directions
B a single fixed white nose light visible 110 degrees either side of dead ahead
C a flashing white light in the nose cone
D a single flashing red light visible from all directions
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) You are flying at night, and see a single fixed white light coming closer. What are you approaching?
A A glider that is coming towards you
B An airship or hot air balloon
C Another aircraft heading roughly the same way as you
D An aerodrome identification beacon
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
18) A Certificate of Airworthiness will cease to be valid, if:
A the aircraft enters a State different to the State of issue
B the aircraft (or any of its equipment) is repaired or modified other than in an approved manner
C the Certificate of Registration is not attached to it
D a navigation light is discovered to be unserviceable during a pre-flight inspection
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
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