20) When Mode C is selected, a transponder can report altitude. The reported altitude is:
A the altitude displayed on the altimeter
B the pressure altitude using 1013.25 hPa
C the altitude using regional QNH
D the altitude using aerodrome QFE
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
Effective 15th March 2007, Class C airspace is designated in the UK:
A above FL195
B above FL185
C above FL185 and up to FL245
D above FL195 and up to FL245
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/ukclassc.htm
2) An important document concerning Take-off, Climb and Landing performance, printed on pink paper, is an example of:
A a Class 2 NOTAM
B an aeronautical information circular (AIC)
C a temporary warning (TW)
D a mandatory operational procedure issued by the ICAO Chicago Convention
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
3) Do the Rules of the Air permit flying in formation?
A Yes, providing that the commanders have agreed to do so
B No
C No, unless an approved course of formation flying has been completed
D Yes, providing that permission from CAA is obtained at least 72 hrs prior to the proposed flight
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
4) Are aerobatic manoeuvres permitted in controlled airspace?
A No
B Yes, providing you have specific approval from the appropriate ATC unit
C Yes, providing there is at least 10 km forward visibility
D Yes, within certain times promulgated by NOTAM
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) An applicant for an EASA PPL(A) must have completed a solo cross country flight in accordance with which of the following minimum parameters?
A A flight of at least 270 km with at least one landing at a different aerodrome en-route
B A flight of at least 100 nm with two full stop landings at different aerodromes en-route
C A flight of at least 150 nm with two full stop landings at different aerodromes en-route
D A flight of at least 150 nm which may be completed as a single sector flight
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) Special VFR is a concession that:
A facilitates flights that would otherwise be restricted due to weather
B is at the discretion of the appropriate ATC unit
C facilitates flights that would otherwise be restricted due to weather and is at the discretion of the appropriate ATC unit
D allows aircraft to fly in Class A airspace under VFR
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
7) In the AIP, where would you find information on specific aerodromes?
A ENR
B GEN
C AIC
D AD
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
8) You are on a three mile final, at night, and have been cleared to land. Air Traffic Control suddenly respond to a different aircraft, clearing them to make an immediate emergency landing. You should:
A speed up and land immediately, vacating the runway as soon as possible
B give way. You can then land after the other craft without further clearance
C give way. You must not land without a further clearance
D immediately contact ATC and advise them of your current position and intentions
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
9) An intercepting aircraft indicates that you are to follow. How do you signal that you have understood and will comply?
A Rock your wings and follow the other aircraft
B Switch on your navigation lights and follow the other aircraft
C Flash your landing light once and then follow the other aircraft
D Make small changes in pitch attitude to 'nod' your assent
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
10) What period of time must engine and propeller logbooks be kept for, after the destruction or withdrawal from service of the unit to which the logbook refers?
A 12 months
B 24 months
C 30 months
D 36 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) On approach to landing during your first solo, Air Traffic Control (ATC) pass you the message, "Golf Romeo Juliet, Cleared to land, surface wind 300 at 10 knots. What should you reply?
A Landing, wind 300 at 10, Golf Romeo Juliet
B Golf Romeo Juliet is cleared to land with the wind at 10 knots
C Roger, Golf Romeo Juliet
D Cleared to land, Golf Romeo Juliet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
12) If an EASA PPL(A) licence holder is required to undergo a surgical operation, they are required to:
A advise their general practitioner
B seek the advice of the CAA or an Authorised Medical Examiner without undue delay
C seek the advice of the hospital who will be performing the procedure
D notify the CAA if they are do be hospitalised for more than 48 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
13) What is the name given to the area of an aerodrome used for purposes such as unloading / loading of aircraft and operations other than flight operations?
A The manoeuvring area
B The restricted area
C The apron
D The hardstand
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
14) An aircraft taxying to the parking area is converging with a vehicle used for runway inspections. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The aircraft must give way
B The vehicle must give way to the aircraft
C That which has the other on its left must give way
D That which has the other on its right must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
15) Which of the following is the correct vertical limit of an ATZ?
A 2000 ft above aerodrome level
B 2000 ft above mean sea level
C 2000 ft above average ground level
D 3000 ft above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
16) For the purposes of customs and other examinations under the terms of the Chicago Convention, a contracting State:
A must require aircraft entering its territory to land at a customs aerodrome
B must require all aircraft to land at a designated 'port of entry'
C must specify which customs aerodrome is to be used by inbound aircraft
D may require aircraft entering its territory to land at a customs aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
17) Which of the following statements concerning altimeters is true?
A In air colder than ISA, an altimeter will under-read the true altitude
B In air colder than ISA, an altimeter will over-read the true altitude
C In air hotter than ISA, an altimeter will over-read the true altitude
D Normal temperature variations do not affect altimeter accuracy
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) You are flying over a small city with an elevation of 200 ft. The highest building in this area is 200 ft above ground level. Notwithstanding the requirement to 'land clear' in the event of engine failure, what minimum altitude should you maintain as you pass overhead?
A 1000 ft
B 1200 ft
C 1400 ft
D 1700 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/rule5amended.htm
19) A pressure altitude of 4500 ft is referred to as:
A FL 45
B FL 045
C FL 4500
D FL 450
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
20) What is the transition layer?
A The airspace above the transition level
B A layer 500 ft thick for extra separation between aircraft
C A layer 1000 ft thick for extra separation between aircraft
D The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An obstacle which is 456 feet above ground level will:
A not be listed in the AIP
B be listed in the AIP and must be lit at night
C be listed in the AIP and may be lit at night
D be listed in the AIP and will not be lit at night
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
2) Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions
B carry a 'competent observer'
C hold an Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) rating (or higher qualification)
D inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a 'competent observer'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
3) A Certificate of Maintenance Review is required for aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness in the:
A private, aerial work and transport categories
B aerial work and transport categories
C private and transport categories
D transport (only) category
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
4) An important document concerning Take-off, Climb and Landing performance, printed on pink paper, is an example of:
A a Class 2 NOTAM
B an aeronautical information circular (AIC)
C a temporary warning (TW)
D a mandatory operational procedure issued by the ICAO Chicago Convention
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) Which of the following situations grant an exemption from any low flying prohibition for an aircraft operating in accordance with normal aviation practice at a Government or licensed aerodrome?
A An aircraft that is taking off or landing
B An aircraft that is practising approaches to landing
C An aircraft that is checking navigational aids or procedures
D All of the above situations grant an exemption from any low flying prohibition
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
6) A pilot is following the coastline and transiting controlled airspace in accordance with ATC instructions. Which of the following statements is correct?
A The pilot should keep the coastline on their left
B The pilot should keep the coastline on their right
C The pilot is not required to keep the coastline on any particular side
D The pilot should keep the coastline on their left unless above the transition altitude
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
7) In unusually cold air, an altimeter is likely to indicate:
A that the aircraft is higher than it really is
B that the aircraft is lower than it really is
C normally, as they are always temperature compensated
D normally, as the difference caused by temperature variation is insignificant
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
8) Which of the following statements concerning the Chicago Convention is true?
A States have the right to require overflying aircraft to land
B States do not have the right to require overflying aircraft to land
C States can only require overflying aircraft to land for safety reasons
D States can only require overflying aircraft to land for security reasons
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) If you elected to fly IFR, how should you describe your vertical position when you are above the transition altitude?
A Height
B Altitude, using the Regional Pressure Setting
C Flight Level
D Altitude, using the QNH for the nearest aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
10) What is the speed limit for VFR traffic at FL80?
A 140 kt IAS
B 140 kt GS
C 250 kt IAS
D 250 kts TAS
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
11) What arc of visibility should the starboard wingtip light exhibit?
A From dead ahead to 120 degrees to starboard
B From dead ahead to 70 degrees to starboard
C From dead ahead to 90 degrees to starboard
D From dead ahead to 110 degrees to starboard
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
12) You are approaching an aerodrome at an altitude of 3440 ft, with QNH 1029 hectopascals set. You set 988 hectopascals QFE for landing. What will your altimeter read now?
A 2825 feet
B 2210 feet
C 4670 feet
D 2400 feet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
13) If you inadvertently enter a restricted or danger area, what should you do?
A Make a level turn and leave the area by the quickest means
B Descend and leave the area by the quickest means
C Climb and maintain your present course until you have crossed the area
D Immediately commence a climb providing you are within 2000ft of the area ceiling
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) 'Long final' is deemed to be when you are:
A approximately 6 nautical miles from the runway threshold
B 10 nautical miles from the runway threshold
C less than 4 nautical miles from the runway threshold
D between 4 and 8 nautical miles from the runway threshold
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
15) What is the name given to the area of an aerodrome used for purposes such as unloading / loading of aircraft and operations other than flight operations?
A The manoeuvring area
B The restricted area
C The apron
D The hardstand
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) ICAO Annex 12 describes a phase where the rescue coordination centre contacts search and rescue units, raising resources to immediate action status. What is the name given to this phase?
A Uncertainty phase
B Alert phase
C Distress phase
D Standby phase
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) What documentation is required in order to tow a glider?
A No documentation is required, but the pilot must be suitably trained and deemed 'competent'
B The Certificate of Registration must expressly permit glider towing
C The Flight Manual must permit this, and a 'Towing Logbook' must be kept
D The Certificate of Airworthiness must include an express provision for this purpose
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
18) You are planning to fly into a high altitude aerodrome, where it is normal practice to use QNH for the circuit and approach. Why might this be?
A Because QFE settings are inaccurate at higher altitudes
B Because the use of QNH simplifies the pilot workload
C Because the altimeter cannot display the very low QFE setting
D Because the altimeter cannot display the very low altitude if a low QFE is set
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
19) An aircraft taxying to the parking area is converging with a vehicle used for runway inspections. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The aircraft must give way
B The vehicle must give way to the aircraft
C That which has the other on its left must give way
D That which has the other on its right must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
20) What colour should runway threshold and wingbar lights be?
A Blue
B Yellow
C Green
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
NOTAMS are circulated by:
A telephone
B first class mail
C the aeronautical teleprinter network
D e-mail
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
2) Entries in a personal flying logbook must be made in:
A ink or pencil
B ink or indelible pencil
C ink only
D black ink only
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
3) An aircraft taxying for departure is converging with a tractor unit towing another aircraft. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The tractor towing the aircraft must give way
B The aircraft taxying for departure must give way
C The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its right must give way
D The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its left must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
4) When a search and rescue (SAR) operation is initiated, responsibility for alerting individual search and rescue units lies with:
A the aircraft operator
B the aircraft commander
C the rescue coordination centre
D the relevant air traffic control unit
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
5) You see another aircraft approaching on a converging course on your starboard side. Who has priority?
A You do, maintain your course and altitude
B The other aircraft
C Neither have priority, both should turn to avoid each other.
D You do, but you should turn to starboard to lessen the risk of collision
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
6) With respect to a particular aircraft, how are operating limitations or other information necessary for the safe conduct of flight made available?
A As an annex to the Certificate of Registration
B As an annex to the Certificate of Airworthiness
C In the Flight Manual, on aircraft placards, and in other documentation as required
D In Pilot's Manuals and other documentation available online
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
7) What is the normal transponder conspicuity code in the UK?
A 2000
B 7000
C 7500
D 1200
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
8) You are flying in an unfamiliar area when you notice a series of red and green stars, fired from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds. What does this mean?
A You are about to enter a low level firing range
B You are in or very near to a restricted, prohibited or danger area
C There is a gas venting area in the vicinity
D You are close to a military aerodrome traffic zone
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
9) Which of the following is the correct radius of an ATZ?
A Always 2 miles radius
B Always 2.5 miles radius
C Possibly 2 or 2.5 miles radius depending on the aerodrome
D 1.68 nm radius, centred on the mid point of the aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
10) Is flying training permitted at unlicensed aerodromes?
A No
B Yes, providing the aircraft has a maximum total weight authorised of no more than 5700 kg
C Yes, providing the aircraft has a maximum total weight authorised of no more than 2730 kg
D Yes, providing the aerodrome operator has given permission
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/unlicensedaerodromes.htm
11) After a flight, when must the technical log for an aircraft in the Public Transport category be completed?
A Before it is flown by the next pilot
B At the end of the day
C Within 12 hours of the flight
D Before it is flown by the next pilot or at the end of the day, whichever is the sooner
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
12) Which of the following does NOT need to be read back to an Air Traffic Controller?
A A conditional clearance
B Runway in use
C Wind direction
D QNH altimeter setting
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) In order to revalidate a single engine piston class rating by experience, within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating a holder of a PPL(A) licence is required to undertake a training flight with an instructor and complete:
A 12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 12 take-offs and landings
B 6 hours of flight time, 3 hours as pilot in command, 6 take-offs and landings
C 12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 3 take-offs and landings
D 18 hours of flight time, 12 hours as pilot in command, 6 take-offs and landings
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) A pressure altitude of 4500 ft is referred to as:
A FL 45
B FL 045
C FL 4500
D FL 450
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
15) An aircraft shall not be flown in simulated instrument flight conditions unless:
A it is fitted with dual controls
B a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
C it is fitted with dual controls and a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
D it is fitted with dual controls and a competent observer is carried
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/Rule23and24.htm
16) You are not permitted to act as a member of crew on an aircraft if:
A you have consumed alcohol in the last 8 hours
B you have consumed alcohol in the last 12 hours
C you have consumed alcohol in the last 16 hours
D your ability to perform the duties has been affected by alcohol
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
17) What is the name given to the lowest flight level available for cruising above the transition altitude?
A The transition layer
B The transition level
C The initial level
D The primary level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) If you receive a general anaesthetic, for how long must you wait before you can fly as pilot in command?
A At least 48 hours
B At least 12 hours
C At least 6 hours
D At least 24 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
19) What does a red square with a single yellow diagonal stripe on the signals area indicate?
A The state of the manoevering area is poor
B Aircraft should land in emergency only
C Runway is closed. Do not land in any circumstance
D Do not taxi on the runway without ATC permission
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
20) What should you do if a wing navigation light fails during a night flight?
A Continue - no action is required
B See if you can conduct an in-flight repair
C Land as soon as is reasonably practical to do so
D Immediately switch off the remaining lights to avoid creating a misleading situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
You are intending to fly VFR in accordance with the semicircular rule on a magnetic track of 050. Which of the following is your correct flight level?
A FL 30
B FL 35
C FL 40
D FL 45
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
2) When a notifiable accident occurs in or over the UK, the aircraft commander must notify:
A the Chief Inspector of Air Accidents
B the local police authority
C the aircraft owner
D both the Chief Inspector of Air Accidents and the local police authority
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
3) You see a single fixed red light ahead of you during a night flight. Assuming the light is correctly displayed, what could this be?
A It can only be a free balloon
B It can only be a glider
C It might be a glider or a free balloon
D It might be a glider, a free balloon or an airship
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
4) Which of the following need NOT be recorded in your personal flying logbook?
A Particulars of flight simulator tests
B Flights in which you were 'supernumerary'
C The type and registration mark of the aircraft
D Flights in which you were under training
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) Who has the final authority over operations of an aircraft in flight?
A The pilot in command
B The aircraft owner or operator
C Air Traffic Control
D The person who is flying the aircraft at that time
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
6) What is a TNW bulletin?
A Advice concerning a terminal navigation waypoint
B Information concerning terminal (aerodrome) notified works
C Advice concerning a temporary navigation waypoint
D A temporary navigation warning
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
7) In the UK, Airways are ________ airspace. What are the missing words?
A Class B or Class A
B Class C
C Class A or Class C
D Class B
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/ukclassc.htm
8) You are flying VFR in Class D airspace. Which of the following statements is true?
A You will be separated from other VFR flights
B You will be separated from other VFR and IFR traffic
C You will be separated from IFR traffic
D You will receive traffic information about other VFR flights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
9) With respect to airspace classification requirements, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class E airspace below FL100?
A Nothing
B VHF-COM
C VHF-COM and NAV
D VHF-COM and Transponder (with Mode Charlie)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/airspace.htm
10) Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions
B carry a 'competent observer'
C hold an Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) rating (or higher qualification)
D inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a 'competent observer'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
11) A pilot is approaching to land on the runway of an aerodrome that does not have an air traffic control unit. There is an aircraft ahead which has just landed. According to Rule 14, the pilot is only permitted to land if:
A the runway is clear of other aircraft
B both pilots are in agreement that the landing aircraft will be able to land safely
C the landing pilot is able to land without predjudice to the aircraft ahead
D the landing pilot has satisfied himself that any action will not interfere with the safety of others
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
12) An aircraft flying inside a control zone at night is required to operate under:
A VFR, SVFR or IFR as appropriate
B IFR
C SVFR
D IFR unless it is flying on a SVFR flight
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/vfratnight.htm
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