15) What is the transition layer?
A The airspace above the transition level
B A layer 500 ft thick for extra separation between aircraft
C A layer 1000 ft thick for extra separation between aircraft
D The airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
16) Identify the type of airspace from the following description: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. IFR flights are subject to ATC service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical.
A Class B
B Class C
C Class D
D Class E
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
17) What is a Regional Pressure Setting?
A The average forecast QFE value for that region
B The highest forecast QNH value for that region
C The average forecast QNH value for that region
D The lowest forecast QNH value for that region
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
18) In the United Kingdom, an aircraft flying outside a control zone at night:
A is permitted to operate under SVFR or IFR as required
B must operate under SVFR
C must operate under IFR
D may operate under VFR
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/vfratnight.htm
19) How soon after a flight must your logbook entry be completed?
A As soon as is reasonably practical
B Within 12 hours of completion of the flight
C Within 48 hours of landing
D Within 24 hours of landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
20) From 8th April 2012, what sort of medical are EASA private pilots required to have?
A A Class 1 medical under FCL 3
B A Class 2 medical under Part-MED
C A Class 2 medical under JAR FCL 2
D A Class 3 medical under Part-MED
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
Which of the following statements regarding aerobatic manoeuvres over a congested area is true?
A Aerobatic manoeuvres are not permitted
B Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are at 3000 ft or higher
C Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are able to 'land clear' if required
D Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you have consent of the appropriate ATC unit
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
2) On what colour paper would you expect to find an aeronautical information circular (AIC) concerning administration matters?
A Green
B Yellow
C Blue
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
3) You have aerodrome QNH set in the altimeter subscale. On the ground the altimeter should read:
A 0 ft
B the elevation of the aerodrome above mean sea level
C the height of the aircraft above aerodrome level
D the height of the aerodrome above the regional pressure setting level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
4) You have been intercepted and have been requested to land at an aerodrome you consider inadequate for your aircraft. How do you signal to the intercepting aircraft that you cannot land here?
A Raise your landing gear (if possible) and make an abrupt turn out of the aerodrome circuit
B Switch off your landing light and continue past the designated aerodrome
C Rock your wings once
D Overfly the runway and then circle the aerodrome maintaining a height between 1000 and 2000 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
5) Which of the following air to ground signals indicates that your ground signals have been understood by a nearby aircraft?
A Aircraft climbs and turns
B Aircraft overflies your location at slow speed
C Aircraft rocks its wings
D Aircraft lowers its undercarriage once
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) A pilot is (correctly) transmitting the transponder code 0033. The pilot is transmitting:
A an ATC assigned en-route 'squawk' code
B the special code to indicate that parachute operations are under way
C a special code to indicate VHF communications radio failure
D the standard UK conspicuity code for normal operations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) An aircraft is defined as being in 'flight' from:
A engine startup to engine shutdown
B the moment of take-off to when the landing gear touches down
C when it first moves to when it comes to rest after the flight
D the start of the take-off roll until it touches down for landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
8) Which of the following lists is made up of those aircraft which must give way to a glider?
A Hot air balloons, Microlights, Aircraft towing other aircraft
B Airships, Hot air balloons
C Helicopters, Microlights, Power driven fixed wing aircraft
D Hot air balloons, Helicopters, Microlights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
9) You are in level flight (outside of controlled airspace) on a heading of 005, flying VFR. Owing to wind drift your magnetic track is 355. The QNH is 1015 hPa. If you wish to comply with the semicircular rule, you should fly at:
A an indicated 4500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1015 hPa
B an indicated 5000 ft with an altimeter setting of 1015 hPa
C an indicated 3000 ft with an altimeter setting of 1015 hPa
D an indicated 4500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1013 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
10) Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions
B carry a 'competent observer'
C hold an Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) rating (or higher qualification)
D inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a 'competent observer'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
11) A weight schedule, prepared as part of a previous Certificate of Airworthiness has now been superceded by a new weight schedule. For how long must this old schedule be kept?
A 3 months
B 12 months
C 28 days
D 6 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
12) In which classes of airspace would an IFR flight be separated from other IFR flights?
A Class A, B, C, and D
B Class A, B, and C
C Class A, B, C, D, and E
D Class B, C, D, and E
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) What should you do if a wing navigation light fails during a night flight?
A Continue - no action is required
B See if you can conduct an in-flight repair
C Land as soon as is reasonably practical to do so
D Immediately switch off the remaining lights to avoid creating a misleading situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
14) Prior to departing the aerodrome for a cross country navigation exercise, you should check the altimeter by setting:
A the Regional Pressure Setting and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
B aerodrome QFE and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
C 1013 hPa and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
D aerodrome QNH and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
15) In the UK, Class B airspace is:
A allocated above FL245
B allocated at and above FL100
C allocated at and above 3000 ft
D not allocated
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/ukclassc.htm
16) Under what conditions may a pilot transfer their licence from one member State to another?
A If the pilot resides in that State for 91 days or more
B If the pilot takes up employment or normal residence in that State
C If the pilot is granted a visa allowing them to work in that State
D If they are a resident of that State, or will become so within 185 days
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) What minimum height are you required to maintain when overflying a large open-air gathering of 1000 people or more?
A 1000 m
B 500 ft
C 1000 ft
D 3000 m
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/rule5amended.htm
18) On approach to landing during your first solo, Air Traffic Control (ATC) pass you the message, "Golf Romeo Juliet, Cleared to land, surface wind 300 at 10 knots. What should you reply?
A Landing, wind 300 at 10, Golf Romeo Juliet
B Golf Romeo Juliet is cleared to land with the wind at 10 knots
C Roger, Golf Romeo Juliet
D Cleared to land, Golf Romeo Juliet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
19) An accurate timing device is required for VFR flight. What other items of equipment must be carried as a minimum on VFR flights?
A A compass, GPS, turn coordinator, a vertical speed indicator and an altimeter
B A compass, a turn coordinator, and an airspeed indicator
C An altimeter, a compass, and an airspeed indicator
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, a compass, and an airspeed indicator
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
20) How many hours of Pilot in Command (PIC) time may be credited towards a PPL (A) licence for those already holding a licence for helicopters, three axis microlights or gliders?
A 10% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 10 hours
B 10% of the PIC time
C 5% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 20 hours
D 5% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 10 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
1) Which of the following altimeter settings expresses your vertical position above mean sea level?
A QFE
B QNH
C QDR
D QNE
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
2) You are approaching an aerodrome at an altitude of 3370 ft, with QNH 1021 hectopascals set. You set 1001 hectopascals QFE for landing. What will your altimeter read now?
A 3070 feet
B 2570 feet
C 3970 feet
D 2770 feet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
3) If you inadvertently enter a restricted or danger area, what should you do?
A Make a level turn and leave the area by the quickest means
B Descend and leave the area by the quickest means
C Climb and maintain your present course until you have crossed the area
D Immediately commence a climb providing you are within 2000ft of the area ceiling
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
4) You wish to simulate instrument flight conditions for training purposes. Which of the following statements is correct?
A A safety pilot is required, but the aircraft need not be fitted with dual controls
B A safety pilot is required and a third person (competent observer) may also be required
C A safety pilot must be carried but is not restricted in their choice of seating position
D A competent observer (who need not be a pilot) should be carried
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/Rule23and24.htm
5) You are planning to fly into a high altitude aerodrome, where it is normal practice to use QNH for the circuit and approach. Why might this be?
A Because QFE settings are inaccurate at higher altitudes
B Because the use of QNH simplifies the pilot workload
C Because the altimeter cannot display the very low QFE setting
D Because the altimeter cannot display the very low altitude if a low QFE is set
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) In accordance with ICAO Annex 7, the Certificate of Registration:
A must be carried in the aircraft on all flights
B must be kept by the aircraft operator in a secure location
C must be carried on international flights, and may be carried on domestic flights
D must be carried on all flights where the departure and arrival aerodrome are different
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
7) In which section of the AIP would you find information relating to airspace classifications?
A GEN
B ENR
C AD
D AIC
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
8) What is a CMATZ?
A A MATZ which also has customs facilities at the aerodrome
B A MATZ which is in controlled airspace
C A MATZ which is controlled by a tower
D An area where more than one MATZ combine together
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
9) What is the recommended procedure regarding the use of line features for navigation?
A You should fly on the right where possible
B Always fly on the left of any line feature
C You should fly down the centre of the feature
D You should not follow line features as this is poor navigational practice
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
10) Operators of non-complex aircraft are required to keep:
A an aircraft logbook
B an engine logbook
C a propeller logbook
D both an aircraft logbook and an engine logbook
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
11) Two aircraft are both on a final approach. Under normal circumstances, which has priority?
A The aircraft that is lower
B The aircraft that is on 'long final'
C The aircraft that is larger
D The aircraft that has a higher approach speed
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
12) If you are flying VFR, and wish to comply with the semicircular rule, which of the following would be your correct level if you were flying due south?
A Odd thousands of feet (i.e. FL30, FL50)
B Even thousands of feet (i.e. FL40, FL60)
C Odd thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL35, FL55)
D Even thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL45, FL65)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
13) Air Traffic Controllers may close a licensed aerodrome in certain conditions. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A ATC may close the aerodrome if the landing area is unfit
B ATC may close the aerodrome if essential facilities have failed
C Providing that details have been publicised by NOTAM, ATC may close the aerodrome for any reason
D ATC may close the aerodrome if, in their opinion, weather conditions have significantly deteriorated
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
14) How often are aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) published?
A Weekly
B Fortnightly
C Monthly
D Annually
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) You fall ill, and are unable to act as Pilot in Command. After what period must the CAA be advised?
A 10 days
B 21 days
C As soon as is 'reasonably practical'
D 28 days
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
16) If an aircraft from one ICAO contracting State lands in another State, certain items are exempt from customs duties. Which of the following best describes what these items are?
A Fuel, lubricating oils, spare parts and regular equipment remaining on board
B Fuel contained in aircraft tanks and spare containers of lubricating and hydraulic oils
C Fuel and any spare parts that are specific to that aircraft providing that they remain on board
D All items that remain on board for the duration of the period spent in the foreign contracting State
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
17) An aeronautical identification beacon at a military aerodrome will show:
A a three letter morse group signal in green
B a two letter morse group signal in red
C a three letter morse group signal in red
D a two letter morse group signal in green
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) In which classes of airspace would a VFR flight be separated from IFR flights?
A Class A and B
B Class A, B and C
C Class B, C and D
D Class B and C
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
19) In order to revalidate a single engine piston class rating by experience, within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating a holder of a PPL(A) licence is required to undertake a training flight with an instructor and complete:
A 12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 12 take-offs and landings
B 6 hours of flight time, 3 hours as pilot in command, 6 take-offs and landings
C 12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 3 take-offs and landings
D 18 hours of flight time, 12 hours as pilot in command, 6 take-offs and landings
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
20) ICAO Annex 12 defines the phase where there is apprehension as to the safety of an aircraft as:
A the distress phase
B the information phase
C the evaluation phase
D the alert phase
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
On approach to landing during your first solo, Air Traffic Control (ATC) pass you the message, "Golf Romeo Juliet, Cleared to land, surface wind 300 at 10 knots. What should you reply?
A Landing, wind 300 at 10, Golf Romeo Juliet
B Golf Romeo Juliet is cleared to land with the wind at 10 knots
C Roger, Golf Romeo Juliet
D Cleared to land, Golf Romeo Juliet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
2) What do two diagonal yellow bars in the shape of a cross on a red square on the signals area indicate?
A The position of the glider tow rope dropping area
B Caution should be exercised as surfaces are rough
C Runway has poor surfaces. Do not land in any circumstance
D Landing prohibited
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
3) Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions
B carry a 'competent observer'
C hold an Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) rating (or higher qualification)
D inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a 'competent observer'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) ICAO Annex 12 describes a phase where the rescue coordination centre contacts search and rescue units, raising resources to immediate action status. What is the name given to this phase?
A Uncertainty phase
B Alert phase
C Distress phase
D Standby phase
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) You are flying at FL40. What is the altitude of your aircraft if the QNH is 1023 hPa?
A 4000 ft
B 3700 ft
C 4300 ft
D 4100 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) A Certificate of Maintenance Review is required for aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness in the:
A private, aerial work and transport categories
B aerial work and transport categories
C private and transport categories
D transport (only) category
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) What are the vertical dimensions of a MATZ stub?
A From the surface to 2000 ft above aerodrome level
B From the surface to 3000 ft above aerodrome level
C From 1000 ft to 2000 ft above aerodrome level
D From 1000 ft to 3000 ft above aerodrome level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
8) You are reviewing some aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) which are printed on yellow paper. What subject do they concern?
A Operational matters including ATS facilities and requirements
B Safety related topics
C Maps and Charts
D UK Airspace Restrictions
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) A Royal flight is to take place entirely in Class G airspace. Which of the following statements is correct?
A The airspace will remain Class G but details of the flight will be promulgated by NOTAM
B Temporary Class B airspace will be established along the route
C Temporary Class D airspace will be established along the route
D Temporary Class A airspace will be established along the route
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/royalflights.htm
10) Which of the following need NOT be recorded in your personal flying logbook?
A Particulars of flight simulator tests
B Flights in which you were 'supernumerary'
C The type and registration mark of the aircraft
D Flights in which you were under training
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) Effective 15th March 2007, Class C airspace is designated in the UK:
A above FL195
B above FL185
C above FL185 and up to FL245
D above FL195 and up to FL245
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/ukclassc.htm
12) You are on a three mile final, at night, and have been cleared to land. Air Traffic Control suddenly respond to a different aircraft, clearing them to make an immediate emergency landing. You should:
A speed up and land immediately, vacating the runway as soon as possible
B give way. You can then land after the other craft without further clearance
C give way. You must not land without a further clearance
D immediately contact ATC and advise them of your current position and intentions
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) A pilot is (correctly) transmitting the transponder code 0033. The pilot is transmitting:
A an ATC assigned en-route 'squawk' code
B the special code to indicate that parachute operations are under way
C a special code to indicate VHF communications radio failure
D the standard UK conspicuity code for normal operations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
14) With respect to the Chicago Convention, if an aircraft from one contracting State lands in another State, the authorities there have:
A the absolute right to search the aircraft without delaying it unreasonably
B the right to search the aircraft providing the operator is notified in advance
C the right to search the aircraft only with the permission of the commander
D the absolute right to search the aircraft for contraband only
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
15) An accurate timing device is required for VFR flight. What other items of equipment must be carried as a minimum on VFR flights?
A A compass, GPS, turn coordinator, a vertical speed indicator and an altimeter
B A compass, a turn coordinator, and an airspeed indicator
C An altimeter, a compass, and an airspeed indicator
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, a compass, and an airspeed indicator
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) You are planning to fly into a high altitude aerodrome, where it is normal practice to use QNH for the circuit and approach. Why might this be?
A Because QFE settings are inaccurate at higher altitudes
B Because the use of QNH simplifies the pilot workload
C Because the altimeter cannot display the very low QFE setting
D Because the altimeter cannot display the very low altitude if a low QFE is set
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
17) The white navigation light of a fixed wing powered aircraft is visible at the rear:
A 70 degrees either side of the centreline
B 140 degrees either side of the centreline
C 35 degrees either side of the centreline
D 22.5 degrees either side of the centreline
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) You are on final approach to a runway. What colour should the lights that mark the far end of the runway be?
A Red
B White
C Flashing yellow (side to side markers)
D Flashing red
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
19) In order to exercise the privileges of an EASA PPL(A) licence, from April 2012 the holder is required to possess a valid medical certificate issued in accordance with:
A JAR-FCL2
B EASA-FCL2
C Part-MED
D JAR-FCL3
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
20) Which of the following altimeter settings would give you height above an aerodrome?
A QNE
B QNH
C QGH
D QFE
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
The altimeter setting QFE describes your:
A height above mean sea level
B altitude above aerodrome level
C pressure level
D height above aerodrome level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
2) When approaching to land at an aerodrome below a TMA or CTA, what altimeter setting should be used when flying below the transition altitude to avoid entering controlled airspace?
A Aerodrome QNH
B The Regional Pressure Setting
C Aerodrome QFE
D 1013 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
3) Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions
B carry a 'competent observer'
C hold an Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) rating (or higher qualification)
D inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a 'competent observer'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) From 8th April 2012, what sort of medical are EASA private pilots required to have?
A A Class 1 medical under FCL 3
B A Class 2 medical under Part-MED
C A Class 2 medical under JAR FCL 2
D A Class 3 medical under Part-MED
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
5) What is a NOTAMN?
A A NOTAM that has been nullified (cancelled)
B A NOTAM that has new information
C A NOTAM that is not valid
D A NOTAM that has the identifier 'November'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
6) Student pilots flying solo without a RT licence are:
A not permitted to use the radio
B permitted to use the radio for emergencies only
C permitted to use the radio as required
D permitted to use the radio providing that they have written authorisation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
Дата добавления: 2015-09-29; просмотров: 25 | Нарушение авторских прав
| <== предыдущая лекция | | | следующая лекция ==> |