19) What is indicated by a yellow square board with a black 'C' on it?
A Customs facilities
B The aerodrome authority (such as ATC)
C Circuits are currently prohibited
D Circuit training is underway
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
20) 'Long final' is deemed to be when you are:
A approximately 6 nautical miles from the runway threshold
B 10 nautical miles from the runway threshold
C less than 4 nautical miles from the runway threshold
D between 4 and 8 nautical miles from the runway threshold
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
1) You encounter severe windshear and low level turbulence on approach to an aerodrome. According to Rule 4, what should you do?
A There is no legal requirement to do anything
B A report must be made to London or Scottish Information immediately
C A report must be made to Air Traffic Control as soon as possible
D A report should be made to Air Traffic Control after landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
2) Whilst walking to your aircraft you notice a white dumb-bell with black stripes at each end in the signals square. What does this indicate?
A Aircraft movement is confined to hard surfaces only
B Movement of aircraft on hard surfaces is not permitted
C Take-off and landing must be on hard surfaces
D Gliding operations are in force
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
3) For how long is an EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid, if you are exactly 39 years old at the time of the medical?
A 60 months
B 12 months
C 24 months
D 36 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
4) In the United Kingdom, an aircraft flying outside a control zone at night:
A is permitted to operate under SVFR or IFR as required
B must operate under SVFR
C must operate under IFR
D may operate under VFR
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/vfratnight.htm
5) Student pilots flying solo without a RT licence are:
A not permitted to use the radio
B permitted to use the radio for emergencies only
C permitted to use the radio as required
D permitted to use the radio providing that they have written authorisation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) You are reviewing an Air Information Circular (AIC) concerning safety related topics. On what colour paper is this printed?
A Blue
B Pink
C Cream
D Yellow
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) Cost sharing between a Private Pilot licence holder and three other passengers for a private flight is:
A prohibited
B permitted, providing that the pilot contributes a quarter share of the costs
C permitted only with prior approval of the Civil Aviation Authority
D permitted, providing the aircraft has a public transport certificate of airworthiness
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
8) What name is given to the area of the aerodrome used for take-off, landing and taxying?
A The apron
B The manoeuvring area
C The taxiway
D The runway
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
9) What colour should runway threshold and wingbar lights be?
A Blue
B Yellow
C Green
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
10) Which of the following classifications of airspace concern 'Advisory Routes'?
A D and E
B F
C G
D C
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) The altimeter reading with a pressure setting of 1013 hPa describes your:
A height above aerodrome level
B altitude above aerodrome level
C distance above that pressure level
D altitude above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
12) With respect to the Chicago Convention, certain aircraft are permitted to make flights into or across the territory of another State without permission. To whom does this apply?
A All aircraft of other States
B All aircraft of other States, providing they are landing in that State
C All aircraft engaged on scheduled services (only)
D All aircraft, other than those on scheduled services
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
13) After landing in a remote area, you decide to lay out a ground signal to indicate you require medical attention. What is this signal?
A A letter X
B A letter M
C A cross (+) with a circle around it
D A letter V
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) Ignoring any stubs, what is the diameter of a MATZ?
A 2 nautical miles
B 5 nautical miles
C 8 nautical miles
D 10 nautical miles
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/matz_rtfq.htm
15) You are in level flight (outside of controlled airspace) on a heading of 175, flying VFR. Due to wind drift your magnetic track is due south. The QNH is 1020 hPa. If you wish to comply with the semicircular rule, you should fly at:
A an indicated 4500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1020 hPa
B an indicated 3500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1020 hPa
C an indicated 3500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1013 hPa
D an indicated 4500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1013 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
16) You are planning to fly into a high altitude aerodrome, where it is normal practice to use QNH for the circuit and approach. Why might this be?
A Because QFE settings are inaccurate at higher altitudes
B Because the use of QNH simplifies the pilot workload
C Because the altimeter cannot display the very low QFE setting
D Because the altimeter cannot display the very low altitude if a low QFE is set
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
17) The white navigation light of a fixed wing powered aircraft is visible at the rear:
A 70 degrees either side of the centreline
B 140 degrees either side of the centreline
C 35 degrees either side of the centreline
D 22.5 degrees either side of the centreline
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) At what distance should you call 'final' on approach to a landing?
A 4 nautical miles or less
B 5 nautical miles or more
C 10 nautical miles
D 6 nautical miles or less
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
19) You see a single fixed red light ahead of you during a night flight. What is this likely to be?
A It could be a hot air balloon
B It could be the starboard navigation light of another aircraft
C It could be the landing light of a helicopter
D It could be an aerodrome identification beacon
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
20) You are flying in a control zone under Special VFR (SVFR). Who is responsible for maintaining terrain clearance?
A The pilot in command
B The air traffic controller
C Both the pilot and the controller in partnership
D The pilot, unless the aircraft is in receipt of a 'deconfliction' service
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
1) An applicant for an EASA PPL(A) shall be at least ______ years of age.
A 14
B 18
C 17
D 16
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
2) A temporary controlled airway is established between two aerodromes for the purpose of a Royal flight. This is normally established ____ minutes before ETD at the departure airfield until ____ minutes after ETA at the destination.
A 15, 30
B 30, 30
C 30, 60
D 60, 60
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
3) What is a Regional Pressure Setting?
A The average forecast QFE value for that region
B The highest forecast QNH value for that region
C The average forecast QNH value for that region
D The lowest forecast QNH value for that region
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) You passed your SEP class rating skill test on the 12th February 2003. If you did nothing to revalidate it, the last day you would be able to fly would be:
A 11th February 2005
B 12th February 2004
C 13th February 2004
D 11th March 2005
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
5) Which type of airspace permits IFR and VFR flight where no separation, advisory or control services are required?
A Class D
B Class E
C Class F
D Class G
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
6) You are reviewing an Air Information Circular (AIC) concerning safety related topics. On what colour paper is this printed?
A Blue
B Pink
C Cream
D Yellow
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) Ignoring any stubs, what is the diameter of a MATZ?
A 2 nautical miles
B 5 nautical miles
C 8 nautical miles
D 10 nautical miles
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/matz_rtfq.htm
8) An aircraft taxying for departure is converging with a tractor unit towing another aircraft. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The tractor towing the aircraft must give way
B The aircraft taxying for departure must give way
C The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its right must give way
D The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its left must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
9) You are flying at night, and see a single fixed white light coming closer. What are you approaching?
A A glider that is coming towards you
B An airship or hot air balloon
C Another aircraft heading roughly the same way as you
D An aerodrome identification beacon
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
10) What should you do if a wing navigation light fails during a night flight?
A Continue - no action is required
B See if you can conduct an in-flight repair
C Land as soon as is reasonably practical to do so
D Immediately switch off the remaining lights to avoid creating a misleading situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
11) 'Long final' is deemed to be when you are:
A approximately 6 nautical miles from the runway threshold
B 10 nautical miles from the runway threshold
C less than 4 nautical miles from the runway threshold
D between 4 and 8 nautical miles from the runway threshold
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
12) How soon after a flight must your logbook entry be completed?
A As soon as is reasonably practical
B Within 12 hours of completion of the flight
C Within 48 hours of landing
D Within 24 hours of landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
13) You are approaching an aerodrome at an altitude of 3370 ft, with QNH 1021 hectopascals set. You set 1001 hectopascals QFE for landing. What will your altimeter read now?
A 3070 feet
B 2570 feet
C 3970 feet
D 2770 feet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
14) Which of the following situations grant an exemption from any low flying prohibition for an aircraft operating in accordance with normal aviation practice at a Government or licensed aerodrome?
A An aircraft that is taking off or landing
B An aircraft that is practising approaches to landing
C An aircraft that is checking navigational aids or procedures
D All of the above situations grant an exemption from any low flying prohibition
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
15) If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what should you do?
A Attempt to notify the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit
B Make a Mayday call on 121.5 MHz
C Take evading action
D Attempt to make an immediate landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
16) What colour should runway threshold and wingbar lights be?
A Blue
B Yellow
C Green
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
17) What does a single yellow diagonal on a red square mean when displayed in the signals square of an aerodrome?
A Pilots must exercise special care when landing
B Landing prohibited at this time
C Landing permitted in emergency only
D Runway is closed at all times
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) You see that an aerodrome is marked PPR. What does this mean?
A Prior permission is required to land here
B You require precision aids to land at this aerodrome
C This indicates the service facilities available
D Piston Propeller Required (i.e. No jet aircraft permitted)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
19) When overtaking another aircraft in flight, you should:
A pass to the left of the other aircraft
B pass to the right of the other aircraft
C pass either side maintaining adequate separation
D pass to the left and slightly below the other aircraft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
20) Whilst en route within the UK, what would be the most suitable altimeter setting for a flight at 2300 ft?
A QNE
B QFE
C 1013 hPa
D Regional Pressure Setting
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
1) After landing in a remote area, you decide to lay out a ground signal to indicate you require medical attention. What is this signal?
A A letter X
B A letter M
C A cross (+) with a circle around it
D A letter V
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
2) You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 90 ft. The QNH you have been given is 1030 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
A 1017 hectopascals
B 1033 hectopascals
C 1014 hectopascals
D 1027 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
3) You have been intercepted and have been requested to land at an aerodrome you consider inadequate for your aircraft. How do you signal to the intercepting aircraft that you cannot land here?
A Raise your landing gear (if possible) and make an abrupt turn out of the aerodrome circuit
B Switch off your landing light and continue past the designated aerodrome
C Rock your wings once
D Overfly the runway and then circle the aerodrome maintaining a height between 1000 and 2000 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) The Regional Pressure Setting is the:
A highest current QNH for aerodromes within that region
B highest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
C average forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
D lowest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
5) An aircraft flying inside a control zone at night is required to operate under:
A VFR, SVFR or IFR as appropriate
B IFR
C SVFR
D IFR unless it is flying on a SVFR flight
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/vfratnight.htm
6) In level flight above the transition altitude (usually 3000ft), what altimeter setting should be used by pilots flying IFR?
A Regional Pressure Setting
B QNH
C 1013 hPa
D Either QFE or QNH (at the pilots discretion)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
7) Under EASA, an initial issue of a single engine piston class rating is valid for a period of:
A One year
B Two years
C 25 months
D 13 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
8) You are flying over a small city with an elevation of 200 ft. The highest building in this area is 200 ft above ground level. Notwithstanding the requirement to 'land clear' in the event of engine failure, what minimum altitude should you maintain as you pass overhead?
A 1000 ft
B 1200 ft
C 1400 ft
D 1700 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/rule5amended.htm
9) An aircraft taxying for departure is converging with a tractor unit towing another aircraft. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The tractor towing the aircraft must give way
B The aircraft taxying for departure must give way
C The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its right must give way
D The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its left must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
10) Aeronautical night is defined as being from:
A sunset to sunrise
B 30 minutes before sunset to 30 minutes after sunrise
C 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise
D 60 minutes after sunset to 60 minutes before sunrise
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
11) If you receive a local anaesthetic, for how long must you wait before you can fly as pilot in command?
A 3 hours
B 6 hours
C 12 hours
D 24 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
12) What does a continuously flashing white beacon at an aerodrome indicate?
A Runway is not in use
B The location of the aerodrome
C Aircraft require a radio and PPR to land here
D The position of ATC
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
13) If you are flying VFR, and wish to comply with the semicircular rule, which of the following would be your correct level if you were flying due south?
A Odd thousands of feet (i.e. FL30, FL50)
B Even thousands of feet (i.e. FL40, FL60)
C Odd thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL35, FL55)
D Even thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL45, FL65)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
14) What is the speed limit for VFR traffic at FL80?
A 140 kt IAS
B 140 kt GS
C 250 kt IAS
D 250 kts TAS
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) What are the vertical dimensions of a MATZ stub?
A From the surface to 2000 ft above aerodrome level
B From the surface to 3000 ft above aerodrome level
C From 1000 ft to 2000 ft above aerodrome level
D From 1000 ft to 3000 ft above aerodrome level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
16) What name is given to the area of the aerodrome used for take-off, landing and taxying?
A The apron
B The manoeuvring area
C The taxiway
D The runway
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) How soon after a flight must your logbook entry be completed?
A As soon as is reasonably practical
B Within 12 hours of completion of the flight
C Within 48 hours of landing
D Within 24 hours of landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) Which of the following does NOT need to be read back to an Air Traffic Controller?
A A conditional clearance
B Runway in use
C Wind direction
D QNH altimeter setting
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
19) Cost sharing between a Private Pilot licence holder and three other passengers for a private flight is:
A prohibited
B permitted, providing that the pilot contributes a quarter share of the costs
C permitted only with prior approval of the Civil Aviation Authority
D permitted, providing the aircraft has a public transport certificate of airworthiness
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
20) What should you do if a wing navigation light fails during a night flight?
A Continue - no action is required
B See if you can conduct an in-flight repair
C Land as soon as is reasonably practical to do so
D Immediately switch off the remaining lights to avoid creating a misleading situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
1) On approach to landing during your first solo, Air Traffic Control (ATC) pass you the message, "Golf Romeo Juliet, Cleared to land, surface wind 300 at 10 knots. What should you reply?
A Landing, wind 300 at 10, Golf Romeo Juliet
B Golf Romeo Juliet is cleared to land with the wind at 10 knots
C Roger, Golf Romeo Juliet
D Cleared to land, Golf Romeo Juliet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
2) Occasionally at night you will see an aerodrome beacon flashing white and green alternately. What does this mean?
A The aerodrome is PPR only
B It indicates the location of the aerodrome
C It indicates the location and identifies the name of a civilian aerodrome
D It indicates the location and identifies the name of a government aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
3) Airships must give way to:
A flying machines, gliders and balloons
B gliders and balloons
C flying machines and balloons
D flying machines and gliders
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
4) You are flying at night, and see a single fixed white light coming closer. What are you approaching?
A A glider that is coming towards you
B An airship or hot air balloon
C Another aircraft heading roughly the same way as you
D An aerodrome identification beacon
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
5) What is a NOTAMN?
A A NOTAM that has been nullified (cancelled)
B A NOTAM that has new information
C A NOTAM that is not valid
D A NOTAM that has the identifier 'November'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
6) You passed your SEP class rating skill test on the 12th February 2003. If you did nothing to revalidate it, the last day you would be able to fly would be:
A 11th February 2005
B 12th February 2004
C 13th February 2004
D 11th March 2005
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
7) Under the terms of the Chicago Convention, who has the duty to ensure that aircraft in flight comply with the rules and regulations?
A The State of registry of the aircraft
B The State over which the flight takes place
C The State of registry of the aircraft and any State entered by the aircraft
D The pilot in command
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
8) How does a typical light aircraft transponder operating in Mode C know it's vertical position?
A It receives a feed from the altimeter which identifies the altitude currently displayed
B An altitude encoder transmits the current pressure altitude using 1013.25 hPa
C It receives a feed from the altimeter which is then corrected to the local QNH
D A sender unit transmits a pulse to the ground which is used to determine the vertical position
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
9) What in-flight visibility are you required to have in order to fly Special VFR (sVFR) in a control zone as a basic PPL (A)?
A 1800 m
B 3 km
C 10 km
D 1500 m
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
10) What does a white double cross indicate, when displayed in the signals square of an aerodrome?
A Runway surfaces are poor
B Gliding is taking place at this aerodrome
C Parachuting is taking place at this aerodrome
D Runway is closed - do not land here
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) According to the Rules of the Air, pilots wishing to practice an instrument approach in VMC with simulated instrument flight conditions must:
A carry a safety pilot in a second control seat
B carry a competent observer and notify ATC of their intentions
C carry a competent observer and obtain prior permission from ATC
D carry a competent observer who is able to communicate directly with the pilot
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/Rule23and24.htm
12) Ignoring any stubs, what is the diameter of a MATZ?
A 2 nautical miles
B 5 nautical miles
C 8 nautical miles
D 10 nautical miles
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/matz_rtfq.htm
13) If you need to set a different transponder code, what is the primary reason for setting the transponder to 'standby' before changing your squawk code?
A To avoid accidentally transmitting an inappropriate transponder code
B It damages the machine if settings are changed whilst transmitting
C To avoid broadcasting a series of changing codes whilst you change settings
D To avoid causing confusion to other aircraft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) For how long is an Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC) valid?
A 6 months
B 12 months
C 24 months
D Indefinitely
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
15) Prior to departing the aerodrome for a cross country navigation exercise, you should check the altimeter by setting:
A the Regional Pressure Setting and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
B aerodrome QFE and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
C 1013 hPa and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
D aerodrome QNH and ensuring that the aerodrome elevation is displayed
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
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