4) If you are flying IFR, and wish to comply with the semicircular rule, which of the following would be your correct level if you were flying westbound?
A Odd thousands of feet (i.e. FL30, FL50)
B Even thousands of feet (i.e. FL40, FL60)
C Odd thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL35, FL55)
D Even thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL45, FL65)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) Whilst overflying a remote area you notice what appears to be aircraft wreckage in a wooded area. In a small clearing you see the following ground symbol: what does this signal indicate?
A The direction to the location of the survivors
B Assistance is required
C The direction of travel taken by the survivors
D The direction to the downed aircraft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
6) According to the Air Navigation Order, which of the following would NOT be classified as a 'flying machine'?
A A self-launching motor glider
B A power driven airship
C Rotorcraft
D Gyroplanes
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) In Class G airspace, which of the following most accurately describes your weather minima for VFR flight, if you are at an altitude of 2500 ft, and 100 kts?
A You must remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
B You must have an inflight visibility of at least 1800m
C You must maintain 1000 ft separation from cloud in all directions
D You must maintain 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical separation from cloud at all times
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
8) Leaving aside any additional requirements, which of the following lists of items contains only those considered essential equipment for VFR flight?
A An altimeter, a compass and an accurate timing device
B An altimeter, a compass, a vertical speed indicator, and an accurate timing device
C An altimeter, a compass, an airspeed indicator, and an accurate timing device
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, an airspeed indicator, and a compass
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
9) What does a single yellow diagonal on a red square mean when displayed in the signals square of an aerodrome?
A Pilots must exercise special care when landing
B Landing prohibited at this time
C Landing permitted in emergency only
D Runway is closed at all times
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
10) You are flying at night, and see a single fixed white light coming closer. What are you approaching?
A A glider that is coming towards you
B An airship or hot air balloon
C Another aircraft heading roughly the same way as you
D An aerodrome identification beacon
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
11) The Regional Pressure Setting is the:
A highest current QNH for aerodromes within that region
B highest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
C average forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
D lowest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
12) The Rules of the Air apply to:
A all aircraft in the UK irrespective of their State of registry
B all UK aircraft wherever in the world they may be
C all foreign aircraft in UK airspace
D all of the above situations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
13) You are flying VFR in Class D airspace. Which of the following statements is true?
A You will be separated from other VFR flights
B You will be separated from other VFR and IFR traffic
C You will be separated from IFR traffic
D You will receive traffic information about other VFR flights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
14) The QFE for the aerodrome is currently 995 hectopascals. The QNH you have been given is 993 hectopascals. Approximately what would you expect the aerodrome elevation to be?
A -30 ft
B 60 ft
C 30 ft
D -60 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
15) Which of the following is the correct radius of an ATZ?
A Always 2 miles radius
B Always 2.5 miles radius
C Possibly 2 or 2.5 miles radius depending on the aerodrome
D 1.68 nm radius, centred on the mid point of the aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) In which section of the AIP would you find information relating to airspace classifications?
A GEN
B ENR
C AD
D AIC
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) Which of the following need NOT be recorded in your personal flying logbook?
A Particulars of flight simulator tests
B Flights in which you were 'supernumerary'
C The type and registration mark of the aircraft
D Flights in which you were under training
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) You are flying over a large open air rock concert in a field, where the field elevation is 328 ft. Notwithstanding the requirement to 'land clear' in the event of engine failure, what minimum altitude should you maintain?
A 1328 ft
B 1000 m
C 1828 ft
D 1100 m
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/rule5amended.htm
19) A pilot suffers a significant personal injury and is unable to perform their duties as flight crew. With respect to their medical status, which of the following is correct?
A The medical must be renewed via a full initial medical
B The medical status is not affected, providing the rating remains valid
C The medical is suspended pending evaluation
D The medical is suspended for a period of 21 days
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
20) Which of the following statements regarding airspace sovereignty is correct?
A No State has complete sovereignty over airspace above its territory
B States have joint sovereignty over all contiguous States
C Every State has complete sovereignty over airspace above its territory
D Sovereignty of airspace is subject to regional agreements
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
1) You are reviewing some aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) which are printed on mauve paper. What subject do they concern?
A Administration matters
B Maps and Charts
C UK Airspace Restrictions
D Safety
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
2) At lower levels, approximately how many feet does 1 hectopascal of altimeter setting equate to?
A 40 ft
B 30 ft
C 20 ft
D 37 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
3) What is the name given to the lowest flight level available for cruising above the transition altitude?
A The transition layer
B The transition level
C The initial level
D The primary level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
4) With respect to airspace classification requirements, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class E airspace below FL100?
A Nothing
B VHF-COM
C VHF-COM and NAV
D VHF-COM and Transponder (with Mode Charlie)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/airspace.htm
5) Article 9 of the Air Navigation Order sets out the purposes for which an aircraft may fly. In what Certificate of Airworthiness category must an aircraft used for rental be?
A Special
B Private
C Aerial Work
D Transport
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
6) A white dumb-bell with black stripes at each end indicates that:
A you may manoeuvre on any part of the aerodrome
B take-off and landing must be on hard surfaces
C all movement must be made on hard surfaces
D movement of aircraft on hard surfaces is not permitted
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) Aerodrome elevation is usually described as:
A the highest point on the aerodrome
B the highest point on the apron
C the highest point on the landing area
D the average height of the aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
8) A request for a MATZ penetration should be made:
A at least 15 nm or 5 minutes flying time from the MATZ boundary
B as soon as you are within 3 nm of the zone boundary
C prior to departure
D no less than 3 minutes prior to reaching the boundary
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 18 ft. The QNH you have been given is 1005 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
A 1006 hectopascals
B 1003 hectopascals
C 1004 hectopascals
D 999 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
10) An aircraft shall not be flown in simulated instrument flight conditions unless:
A it is fitted with dual controls
B a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
C it is fitted with dual controls and a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
D it is fitted with dual controls and a competent observer is carried
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/Rule23and24.htm
11) Which of the following classifications of airspace concern 'Advisory Routes'?
A D and E
B F
C G
D C
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
12) You are in level flight (outside of controlled airspace) on a heading of 095, flying VFR. Due to wind drift your magnetic track is 087. The QNH is 1016 hPa. If you wish to comply with the semicircular rule, you should fly at:
A an indicated 3500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1013 hPa
B an indicated 4500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1013 hPa
C an indicated 3000 ft with an altimeter setting of 1013 hPa
D an indicated 3500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1016 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
13) Are aerobatic manoeuvres permitted in controlled airspace?
A No
B Yes, providing you have specific approval from the appropriate ATC unit
C Yes, providing there is at least 10 km forward visibility
D Yes, within certain times promulgated by NOTAM
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
14) An applicant for an EASA PPL(A) shall be at least ______ years of age.
A 14
B 18
C 17
D 16
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) How soon after a flight must your logbook entry be completed?
A As soon as is reasonably practical
B Within 12 hours of completion of the flight
C Within 48 hours of landing
D Within 24 hours of landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
16) For how long is an EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid, if you are exactly 39 years old at the time of the medical?
A 60 months
B 12 months
C 24 months
D 36 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
17) What arc of visibility should the starboard wingtip light exhibit?
A From dead ahead to 120 degrees to starboard
B From dead ahead to 70 degrees to starboard
C From dead ahead to 90 degrees to starboard
D From dead ahead to 110 degrees to starboard
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
18) What is the standard ground to air search and rescue visual signal used to indicate the meaning 'negative' (or 'no')?
A A large cross on the ground
B The letter 'N' laid out on the ground
C A horizontal line in the shape of a minus sign laid out on the ground
D The word 'November' laid out on the ground
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
19) If you elected to fly IFR, how should you describe your vertical position when you are above the transition altitude?
A Height
B Altitude, using the Regional Pressure Setting
C Flight Level
D Altitude, using the QNH for the nearest aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
20) Ground vehicles display hazard warning lights when manoeuvring on the aerodrome. What colour are these lights?
A Red and yellow flashing alternately
B Yellow flashing
C Yellow and white flashing alternately
D Red flashing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
1) The articles of the Chicago Convention require:
A aircraft to be registered in all States that may be overflown
B aircraft to be registered in one State only
C aircraft to be registered in the departure and destination State
D aircraft to be registered in no more than two States at any one time
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
2) In which section of the AIP would you find information relating to airspace classifications?
A GEN
B ENR
C AD
D AIC
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
3) Whilst walking to your aircraft you notice a white dumb-bell with black stripes at each end in the signals square. What does this indicate?
A Aircraft movement is confined to hard surfaces only
B Movement of aircraft on hard surfaces is not permitted
C Take-off and landing must be on hard surfaces
D Gliding operations are in force
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
4) Which of the following altimeter settings expresses your vertical position above mean sea level?
A QFE
B QNH
C QDR
D QNE
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) A pilot is permitted to carry out certain repairs to aircraft operated in the 'Private' category. Which of the following repair is NOT permitted by the regulations?
A replacement of landing gear tyres
B replacement of a combined COM/NAV unit
C replacement of safety belts or safety harnesses
D replacement of unserviceable sparking plugs
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
6) If you elected to fly IFR, how should you describe your vertical position when you are above the transition altitude?
A Height
B Altitude, using the Regional Pressure Setting
C Flight Level
D Altitude, using the QNH for the nearest aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
7) An aircraft is defined as being in 'flight' from:
A engine startup to engine shutdown
B the moment of take-off to when the landing gear touches down
C when it first moves to when it comes to rest after the flight
D the start of the take-off roll until it touches down for landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
8) Your aerodrome elevation is -7 ft, and the QFE you have just been given is 1022 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QNH to be?
A 1020 hectopascals
B 1025 hectopascals
C 1022 hectopascals
D 1011 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
9) An Air Traffic Controller can close a licensed aerodrome if:
A weather conditions have significantly deteriorated making landing unsafe
B the runway surface becomes flooded
C essential facilities have failed
D any of the above conditions apply
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
10) On what colour paper would you expect to find an aeronautical information circular (AIC) concerning administration matters?
A Green
B Yellow
C Blue
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
11) What altitude is the transition altitude over most of the UK set at?
A 2000 ft
B 3000 ft
C 5000 ft
D 6000 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
12) A green flashing two letter morse code group at an aerodrome, repeated every 12 seconds:
A indicates the location of the government aerodrome
B indicates the location and identifies the government aerodrome
C indicates the location of the civilian aerodrome
D indicates the location and identifies the civilian aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
13) You are intending to fly VFR in accordance with the semicircular rule on a magnetic track of 185. Which of the following is your correct flight level?
A FL 30
B FL 35
C FL 45
D FL 40
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
14) What is the width of a MATZ 'stub'?
A 2 nm
B 4 nm
C 5 nm
D 6 nm
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
15) You see a red navigation light out to your right whilst flying at night, on a constant relative bearing. Which of the following is correct?
A The aircraft is flying away from you
B There is a risk of collision
C There is no risk of collision
D There is a risk of collision but you have priority in this situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
16) You are flying VFR in Class E airspace. Which of the following statements is true?
A You will be separated from other VFR flights
B You will be separated from IFR flights
C You will receive traffic information about other VFR flights
D You will receive traffic information as far as is practical
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
17) An aircraft taxying to the parking area is converging with a vehicle used for runway inspections. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The aircraft must give way
B The vehicle must give way to the aircraft
C That which has the other on its left must give way
D That which has the other on its right must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) You passed your SEP class rating skill test on the 12th February 2003. If you did nothing to revalidate it, the last day you would be able to fly would be:
A 11th February 2005
B 12th February 2004
C 13th February 2004
D 11th March 2005
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
19) A Mayday call should initially be addressed to:
A London Control
B the Air Traffic Service Unit (ATSU) you are in current contact with
C London Military
D 'All Stations'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
20) An applicant for an EASA PPL(A) shall be at least ______ years of age.
A 14
B 18
C 17
D 16
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
1) Whilst overflying a remote area you notice what appears to be aircraft wreckage in a wooded area. In a small clearing you see the following ground symbol: what does this signal indicate?
A The direction to the location of the survivors
B Assistance is required
C The direction of travel taken by the survivors
D The direction to the downed aircraft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
2) What do two diagonal yellow bars in the shape of a cross on a red square on the signals area indicate?
A The position of the glider tow rope dropping area
B Caution should be exercised as surfaces are rough
C Runway has poor surfaces. Do not land in any circumstance
D Landing prohibited
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
3) What rules apply to practice circuits flown as part of flying training conducted at an unlicensed aerodrome in an aircraft under 2730 kg?
A Practice circuits are not allowed
B Practice circuits are allowed providing the aerodrome has adequate facilities
C Practice circuits are allowed at the discretion of air traffic control (ATC)
D Practice circuits are allowed with the permission of the owner and the CAA
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/unlicensedaerodromes.htm
4) You are in level flight (outside of controlled airspace) on a heading of 005, flying VFR. Owing to wind drift your magnetic track is 355. The QNH is 1015 hPa. If you wish to comply with the semicircular rule, you should fly at:
A an indicated 4500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1015 hPa
B an indicated 5000 ft with an altimeter setting of 1015 hPa
C an indicated 3000 ft with an altimeter setting of 1015 hPa
D an indicated 4500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1013 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
5) Student pilots flying solo without a RT licence are:
A not permitted to use the radio
B permitted to use the radio for emergencies only
C permitted to use the radio as required
D permitted to use the radio providing that they have written authorisation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) How soon after a flight must your logbook entry be completed?
A As soon as is reasonably practical
B Within 12 hours of completion of the flight
C Within 48 hours of landing
D Within 24 hours of landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
7) A pilot is approaching to land on the runway of an aerodrome that does not have an air traffic control unit. There is an aircraft ahead which has just landed. According to Rule 14, the pilot is only permitted to land if:
A the runway is clear of other aircraft
B both pilots are in agreement that the landing aircraft will be able to land safely
C the landing pilot is able to land without predjudice to the aircraft ahead
D the landing pilot has satisfied himself that any action will not interfere with the safety of others
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
8) An important document concerning Take-off, Climb and Landing performance, printed on pink paper, is an example of:
A a Class 2 NOTAM
B an aeronautical information circular (AIC)
C a temporary warning (TW)
D a mandatory operational procedure issued by the ICAO Chicago Convention
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
9) In order to revalidate a single engine piston class rating by experience, within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating a holder of a PPL(A) licence is required to undertake a training flight with an instructor and complete:
A 12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 12 take-offs and landings
B 6 hours of flight time, 3 hours as pilot in command, 6 take-offs and landings
C 12 hours of flight time, 6 hours as pilot in command, 3 take-offs and landings
D 18 hours of flight time, 12 hours as pilot in command, 6 take-offs and landings
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
10) What is the speed limit for VFR traffic at FL80?
A 140 kt IAS
B 140 kt GS
C 250 kt IAS
D 250 kts TAS
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
11) NOTAMS are circulated by:
A telephone
B first class mail
C the aeronautical teleprinter network
D e-mail
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
12) What colour should runway threshold and wingbar lights be?
A Blue
B Yellow
C Green
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) With respect to airspace classification requirements, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class E airspace below FL100?
A Nothing
B VHF-COM
C VHF-COM and NAV
D VHF-COM and Transponder (with Mode Charlie)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/airspace.htm
14) The white navigation light of a fixed wing powered aircraft is visible at the rear:
A 70 degrees either side of the centreline
B 140 degrees either side of the centreline
C 35 degrees either side of the centreline
D 22.5 degrees either side of the centreline
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
15) Which of the following lists is made up of those aircraft which must give way to a glider?
A Hot air balloons, Microlights, Aircraft towing other aircraft
B Airships, Hot air balloons
C Helicopters, Microlights, Power driven fixed wing aircraft
D Hot air balloons, Helicopters, Microlights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) What period of time must engine and propeller logbooks be kept for, after the destruction or withdrawal from service of the unit to which the logbook refers?
A 12 months
B 24 months
C 30 months
D 36 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) Which of the following statements regarding aerobatic manoeuvres over a congested area is true?
A Aerobatic manoeuvres are not permitted
B Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are at 3000 ft or higher
C Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are able to 'land clear' if required
D Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you have consent of the appropriate ATC unit
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) What altitude is the transition altitude over most of the UK set at?
A 2000 ft
B 3000 ft
C 5000 ft
D 6000 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
19) When overtaking another aircraft at night, the manoeuvre is considered complete when:
A the overtaking aircraft is passed and clear
B the overtaking aircraft passes abeam
C the overtaken aircraft can see the white navigation light of the overtaking aircraft
D the overtaking aircraft can no longer see the white navigation light of the overtaken aircraft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
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