10) According to the Rules of the Air, an anti-collision light fitted to an aircraft means:
A A fixed or flashing red light
B A flashing red light
C A flashing white light
D A flashing red or white light
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
11) ICAO Annex 12 describes a search and rescue phase where incoming reports are evaluated. What is the name given to this phase?
A Uncertainty phase
B Alert phase
C Evaluative phase
D Information phase
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
12) If you elected to fly IFR, how should you describe your vertical position when you are above the transition altitude?
A Height
B Altitude, using the Regional Pressure Setting
C Flight Level
D Altitude, using the QNH for the nearest aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) What arc of visibility should the starboard wingtip light exhibit?
A From dead ahead to 120 degrees to starboard
B From dead ahead to 70 degrees to starboard
C From dead ahead to 90 degrees to starboard
D From dead ahead to 110 degrees to starboard
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
14) The call sign 'Information' suggests that you are talking to:
A an air Traffic Control (ATC) tower
B an Air / Ground station
C a flight information service officer
D an officer able to provide you with a Traffic Service
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) An accurate timing device is required for VFR flight. What other items of equipment must be carried as a minimum on VFR flights?
A A compass, GPS, turn coordinator, a vertical speed indicator and an altimeter
B A compass, a turn coordinator, and an airspeed indicator
C An altimeter, a compass, and an airspeed indicator
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, a compass, and an airspeed indicator
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) For how long is an EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid, if you are exactly 39 years old at the time of the medical?
A 60 months
B 12 months
C 24 months
D 36 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
17) Are aerobatic manoeuvres permitted in controlled airspace?
A No
B Yes, providing you have specific approval from the appropriate ATC unit
C Yes, providing there is at least 10 km forward visibility
D Yes, within certain times promulgated by NOTAM
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) Special VFR is a concession that:
A facilitates flights that would otherwise be restricted due to weather
B is at the discretion of the appropriate ATC unit
C facilitates flights that would otherwise be restricted due to weather and is at the discretion of the appropriate ATC unit
D allows aircraft to fly in Class A airspace under VFR
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
19) How soon after a near miss ('AirProx') should the incident be reported in writing using the CAA form numbered 1094?
A Within 7 days
B Within 10 days
C Within 28 days
D As soon as is 'reasonably practical'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
20) According to the Rules of the Air, pilots wishing to practice an instrument approach in VMC with simulated instrument flight conditions must:
A carry a safety pilot in a second control seat
B carry a competent observer and notify ATC of their intentions
C carry a competent observer and obtain prior permission from ATC
D carry a competent observer who is able to communicate directly with the pilot
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
1) You see a red navigation light out to your right whilst flying at night, on a constant relative bearing. Which of the following is correct?
A The aircraft is flying away from you
B There is a risk of collision
C There is no risk of collision
D There is a risk of collision but you have priority in this situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
2) In accordance with Rule 8, who is responsible for collision avoidance?
A Air Traffic Control
B Air Traffic Control (when providing a Basic Service)
C The pilot in command
D Air Traffic Control (when providing a Deconfliction Service)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/atsocas.htm
3) You are in level flight (outside of controlled airspace) on a heading of 175, flying VFR. Due to wind drift your magnetic track is due south. The QNH is 1020 hPa. If you wish to comply with the semicircular rule, you should fly at:
A an indicated 4500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1020 hPa
B an indicated 3500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1020 hPa
C an indicated 3500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1013 hPa
D an indicated 4500 ft with an altimeter setting of 1013 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) What is the usual altimeter setting for flight outside controlled airspace whilst en route at 2000 ft?
A QFE
B The Regional Pressure Setting
C 1013 hPa
D The QNH for your destination aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) You are on a three mile final, at night, and have been cleared to land. Air Traffic Control suddenly respond to a different aircraft, clearing them to make an immediate emergency landing. You should:
A speed up and land immediately, vacating the runway as soon as possible
B give way. You can then land after the other craft without further clearance
C give way. You must not land without a further clearance
D immediately contact ATC and advise them of your current position and intentions
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) A white dumb-bell displayed on the signals square indicates that:
A aircraft movement is confined to hard surfaces only
B aircraft may only move with permission of ATC
C aircraft movement across the apron is prohibited
D aircraft do not require ATC permission to move on hard surfaces
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
7) A 'follow-me' vehicle is leading an aircraft to the allocated bay. What kind of hazard warning light is this vehicle required to display?
A A low intensity flashing red light
B A high intensity flashing red light
C A low intensity flashing yellow light
D A high intensity flashing white light
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
8) Leaving aside any additional requirements, which of the following lists of items contains only those considered essential equipment for VFR flight?
A An altimeter, a compass and an accurate timing device
B An altimeter, a compass, a vertical speed indicator, and an accurate timing device
C An altimeter, a compass, an airspeed indicator, and an accurate timing device
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, an airspeed indicator, and a compass
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
9) Which of the following altimeter settings is used when describing flight levels?
A QFE
B QNH
C 1013 hPa
D 1000 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
10) You are planning a night flight, with passengers. How many take-offs and landings at night must you have completed in the last 90 days?
A One
B Two
C Three, as sole manipulator of the controls
D Three, one of which must be a full stop landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/paxatnight.htm
11) An aircraft shall not be flown in simulated instrument flight conditions unless:
A it is fitted with dual controls
B a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
C it is fitted with dual controls and a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
D it is fitted with dual controls and a competent observer is carried
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/Rule23and24.htm
12) A pilot is following the coastline and transiting controlled airspace in accordance with ATC instructions. Which of the following statements is correct?
A The pilot should keep the coastline on their left
B The pilot should keep the coastline on their right
C The pilot is not required to keep the coastline on any particular side
D The pilot should keep the coastline on their left unless above the transition altitude
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) Which of the following need NOT be recorded in your personal flying logbook?
A Particulars of flight simulator tests
B Flights in which you were 'supernumerary'
C The type and registration mark of the aircraft
D Flights in which you were under training
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
14) For how long is an EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid, if you are less than 40 years old at the time of the medical?
A 12 months
B 24 months
C 60 months
D 60 months or your 42nd birthday, whichever is sooner
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
15) Which of the following does NOT need to be read back to an Air Traffic Controller?
A A conditional clearance
B Runway in use
C Wind direction
D QNH altimeter setting
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 74 ft. The QNH you have been given is 995 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
A 990 hectopascals
B 997 hectopascals
C 1002 hectopascals
D 993 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
17) At night, what light signals must a glider show?
A Similar lights to a powered aircraft, or a single red light
B Similar lights to a powered aircraft, or a single flashing white light
C A red port light, and a green starboard light only.
D Similar lights to a powered aircraft, or a single fixed white light
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) Ignoring any stubs, what is the diameter of a MATZ?
A 2 nautical miles
B 5 nautical miles
C 8 nautical miles
D 10 nautical miles
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/matz_rtfq.htm
19) What name is given to the area of the aerodrome used for take-off, landing and taxying?
A The apron
B The manoeuvring area
C The taxiway
D The runway
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
20) You are planning to fly into a high altitude aerodrome, where it is normal practice to use QNH for the circuit and approach. Why might this be?
A Because QFE settings are inaccurate at higher altitudes
B Because the use of QNH simplifies the pilot workload
C Because the altimeter cannot display the very low QFE setting
D Because the altimeter cannot display the very low altitude if a low QFE is set
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
1) You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 58 ft. The QNH you have been given is 1032 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
A 1033 hectopascals
B 1030 hectopascals
C 993 hectopascals
D 996 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
2) According to the provisions of the Chicago Convention, a foreign aircraft flying in a State shall abide by:
A the regulations of the State in which it is flying
B the regulations of the State of registration
C international regulations that apply to all States
D the regulations of the State where the aircraft is insured
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
3) At what distance should you call 'final' on approach to a landing?
A 4 nautical miles or less
B 5 nautical miles or more
C 10 nautical miles
D 6 nautical miles or less
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
4) You see a single fixed red light ahead of you during a night flight. What is this likely to be?
A It could be a hot air balloon
B It could be the starboard navigation light of another aircraft
C It could be the landing light of a helicopter
D It could be an aerodrome identification beacon
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
5) What are the vertical dimensions of a MATZ stub?
A From the surface to 2000 ft above aerodrome level
B From the surface to 3000 ft above aerodrome level
C From 1000 ft to 2000 ft above aerodrome level
D From 1000 ft to 3000 ft above aerodrome level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
6) An aircraft shall not be flown in simulated instrument flight conditions unless:
A it is fitted with dual controls
B a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
C it is fitted with dual controls and a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
D it is fitted with dual controls and a competent observer is carried
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/Rule23and24.htm
7) The Regional Pressure Setting is the:
A highest current QNH for aerodromes within that region
B highest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
C average forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
D lowest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
8) How often are aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) published?
A Weekly
B Fortnightly
C Monthly
D Annually
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
9) An accurate timing device is required for VFR flight. What other items of equipment must be carried as a minimum on VFR flights?
A A compass, GPS, turn coordinator, a vertical speed indicator and an altimeter
B A compass, a turn coordinator, and an airspeed indicator
C An altimeter, a compass, and an airspeed indicator
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, a compass, and an airspeed indicator
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
10) An aeronautical identification beacon at a military aerodrome will show:
A a three letter morse group signal in green
B a two letter morse group signal in red
C a three letter morse group signal in red
D a two letter morse group signal in green
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) You are planning to fly into a high altitude aerodrome, where it is normal practice to use QNH for the circuit and approach. Why might this be?
A Because QFE settings are inaccurate at higher altitudes
B Because the use of QNH simplifies the pilot workload
C Because the altimeter cannot display the very low QFE setting
D Because the altimeter cannot display the very low altitude if a low QFE is set
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
12) What is the special transponder code, selected 5 minutes before parachute dropping begins and operated until the parachutists are estimated to have reached the ground?
A 7600
B 0033
C 2000
D 7003
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
13) As part of your pre-flight check for a night flight, you discover that the green starboard navigation light has failed. Which of the following statements is in compliance with the Rules of the Air?
A The aircraft may depart from the aerodrome without restriction
B Approval to continue from Air Traffic Control is required prior to departure
C The flight may not depart from the aerodrome until the light is repaired or replaced
D The flight may continue providing that the aircraft operator (or owner) is informed
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
14) What is the speed limit for VFR traffic at 2500 ft?
A 100 kts
B 140 kts
C 250 kts
D Unlimited
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) According to Rule 5 of the Rules of the Air, aircraft intending to drop articles outside of an aerodrome's ATZ are:
A required to obtain CAA permission and are exempt from the 500 ft rule
B exempt from the 500 ft rule and are not required to obtain CAA permission
C not exempt from the 500 ft rule
D exempt from the 500 ft rule providing they are at least 1000 m from any person, vehicle or structure
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
16) You are flying IFR in Class D airspace. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A You will be separated from other IFR flights
B You will be separated from VFR flights
C You will receive an ATC service
D You will receive traffic information about VFR flights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) Which of the following pilot maintenance procedures is NOT permitted under the Air Navigation (General) Regulations?
A replacement of batteries
B replacement of a VHF communication transceiver
C replacement of safety belts or safety harnesses
D replacement of a VOR receiver
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
18) EASA aircraft types that qualify for an EASA Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) are issued with a Certificate of Airworthiness, validated annually with:
A an Operators Check Certificate (OCC)
B an Air Operators Certificate (AOC) to SubPart M of the regulations
C an Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC)
D a Certificate of Maintenance Review (CMR)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
19) How old is the pilot with a freshly issued EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid for 5 years likely to be?
A 31 years old
B 38 years old
C 42 years old
D 51 years old
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
20) An intercepting aircraft indicates to you that you are now clear to proceed. How does it indicate this?
A An abrupt breakaway climbing turn
B By descending rapidly
C By firing a green flare
D By lowering its undercarriage
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
1) Leaving aside any additional requirements, which of the following lists of items contains only those considered essential equipment for VFR flight?
A An altimeter, a compass and an accurate timing device
B An altimeter, a compass, a vertical speed indicator, and an accurate timing device
C An altimeter, a compass, an airspeed indicator, and an accurate timing device
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, an airspeed indicator, and a compass
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
2) Whilst en route within the UK, what would be the most suitable altimeter setting for a flight at 2300 ft?
A QNE
B QFE
C 1013 hPa
D Regional Pressure Setting
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
3) In accordance with Rule 5, you are not permitted to fly:
A less than 1000 ft above any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
B less than 500 ft above any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
C closer than 1000 ft from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
D closer than 500 ft from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) Are aerobatic manoeuvres permitted in controlled airspace?
A No
B Yes, providing you have specific approval from the appropriate ATC unit
C Yes, providing there is at least 10 km forward visibility
D Yes, within certain times promulgated by NOTAM
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) What period of time must engine and propeller logbooks be kept for, after the destruction or withdrawal from service of the unit to which the logbook refers?
A 12 months
B 24 months
C 30 months
D 36 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
6) What is the standard ground to air search and rescue visual signal used to indicate the meaning 'affirmative' (or 'yes')?
A A letter 'Y' laid out on the ground
B A letter 'A' laid out on the ground
C A large tick shape laid out on the ground
D A plus sign laid out on the ground
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
7) Air Traffic Control pass you a 'conditional clearance'. Which of the following is true?
A Pilots should read back the conditional clearance first
B The conditional clearance part of the message does not need to be read back to ATC
C The conditional clearance is read back after the other parts of the message
D The message may be acknowledged with the word 'Roger' or 'Wilco'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
8) If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what should you do?
A Attempt to notify the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit
B Make a Mayday call on 121.5 MHz
C Take evading action
D Attempt to make an immediate landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) How old is the pilot with a freshly issued EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid for 2 years likely to be?
A 22
B 38
C 41
D 50
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
10) Effective 15th March 2007, Class C airspace is designated in the UK:
A above FL195
B above FL185
C above FL185 and up to FL245
D above FL195 and up to FL245
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/ukclassc.htm
11) NOTAMS are circulated by:
A telephone
B first class mail
C the aeronautical teleprinter network
D e-mail
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
12) When overtaking another aircraft on the ground in the UK, you should:
A pass to the left of the other aircraft
B pass to the right of the other aircraft
C pass either side as required, maintaining adequate separation
D pass to the left of nosewheeled aircraft, and to the right of tailwheeled aircraft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) A Royal flight is to take place entirely in Class G airspace. Which of the following statements is correct?
A The airspace will remain Class G but details of the flight will be promulgated by NOTAM
B Temporary Class B airspace will be established along the route
C Temporary Class D airspace will be established along the route
D Temporary Class A airspace will be established along the route
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/royalflights.htm
14) What is the correct vertical limit of a MATZ?
A 3000 ft above aerodrome level
B 2000 ft above aerodrome level
C 3000 ft above mean sea level
D 2000 ft above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
15) Under EASA, an initial issue of a single engine piston class rating is valid for a period of:
A One year
B Two years
C 25 months
D 13 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
16) A white dumb-bell with black stripes at each end indicates that:
A you may manoeuvre on any part of the aerodrome
B take-off and landing must be on hard surfaces
C all movement must be made on hard surfaces
D movement of aircraft on hard surfaces is not permitted
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) In which of the following types of airspace is contact with ATC optional for a VFR flight?
A Class D, E, F, and G
B Class E, F, and G
C Class F, and G
D Class G only
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) The Regional Pressure Setting is the:
A highest current QNH for aerodromes within that region
B highest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
C average forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
D lowest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
19) You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 85 ft. The QNH you have been given is 985 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
A 982 hectopascals
B 987 hectopascals
C 992 hectopascals
D 990 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
20) The white navigation light of a fixed wing powered aircraft is visible at the rear:
A 70 degrees either side of the centreline
B 140 degrees either side of the centreline
C 35 degrees either side of the centreline
D 22.5 degrees either side of the centreline
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
1) How soon after a near miss ('AirProx') should the incident be reported in writing using the CAA form numbered 1094?
A Within 7 days
B Within 10 days
C Within 28 days
D As soon as is 'reasonably practical'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
2) For how long are 'type ratings' valid?
A For the length of the associated class rating
B For 6 months
C For 12 months
D For a period not exceeding 24 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
3) A pilot is permitted to carry out certain repairs to aircraft operated in the 'Private' category. Which of the following repair is NOT permitted by the regulations?
A replacement of landing gear tyres
B replacement of a combined COM/NAV unit
C replacement of safety belts or safety harnesses
D replacement of unserviceable sparking plugs
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
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