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According to Rule 5 of the Rules of the Air, aircraft intending to pick up or drop articles (such as tow ropes or banners) at an aerodrome are: A exempt from the 500 ft rule providing they are at 6 страница




6) If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what should you do?
A Attempt to notify the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit
B Make a Mayday call on 121.5 MHz
C Take evading action
D Attempt to make an immediate landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


7) An obstacle which is 456 feet above ground level will:
A not be listed in the AIP
B be listed in the AIP and must be lit at night
C be listed in the AIP and may be lit at night
D be listed in the AIP and will not be lit at night
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


8) Assuming that QNH is 1013, the flight level FL205 is:
A 2050 ft above mean sea level
B 20500 ft above mean sea level
C 25000 ft above mean sea level
D 20000 ft above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.


9) Air Traffic Control pass you a 'conditional clearance'. Which of the following is true?
A Pilots should read back the conditional clearance first
B The conditional clearance part of the message does not need to be read back to ATC
C The conditional clearance is read back after the other parts of the message
D The message may be acknowledged with the word 'Roger' or 'Wilco'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


10) Who has the final authority over operations of an aircraft in flight?
A The pilot in command
B The aircraft owner or operator
C Air Traffic Control
D The person who is flying the aircraft at that time
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


11) What is the standard ground to air search and rescue visual signal used to indicate the meaning 'affirmative' (or 'yes')?
A A letter 'Y' laid out on the ground
B A letter 'A' laid out on the ground
C A large tick shape laid out on the ground
D A plus sign laid out on the ground
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


12) You are reviewing some aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) which are printed on mauve paper. What subject do they concern?
A Administration matters
B Maps and Charts
C UK Airspace Restrictions
D Safety
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


13) A pilot is approaching to land on the runway of an aerodrome that does not have an air traffic control unit. There is an aircraft ahead which has just landed. According to Rule 14, the pilot is only permitted to land if:
A the runway is clear of other aircraft
B both pilots are in agreement that the landing aircraft will be able to land safely
C the landing pilot is able to land without predjudice to the aircraft ahead
D the landing pilot has satisfied himself that any action will not interfere with the safety of others
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


14) For how long is an EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid, if you are less than 40 years old at the time of the medical?
A 12 months
B 24 months
C 60 months
D 60 months or your 42nd birthday, whichever is sooner
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm


15) Which of the following items would not be required for a single engine, fixed gear, fixed propeller aircraft?
A Engine logbook
B Noise certificate
C Technical logbook
D Propeller logbook
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.


16) You see a single fixed red light ahead of you during a night flight. What is this likely to be?
A It could be a hot air balloon
B It could be the starboard navigation light of another aircraft
C It could be the landing light of a helicopter
D It could be an aerodrome identification beacon
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


17) A Royal flight is to take place entirely in Class G airspace. Which of the following statements is correct?
A The airspace will remain Class G but details of the flight will be promulgated by NOTAM
B Temporary Class B airspace will be established along the route
C Temporary Class D airspace will be established along the route
D Temporary Class A airspace will be established along the route
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/royalflights.htm




18) An aircraft taxying for departure is converging with a tractor unit towing another aircraft. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The tractor towing the aircraft must give way
B The aircraft taxying for departure must give way
C The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its right must give way
D The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its left must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.


19) In which classes of airspace would a VFR flight be separated from other VFR flights?
A Class A, B and C
B Class A and B
C Class B and C
D Class B
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.


20) Entries in a personal flying logbook must be made in:
A ink or pencil
B ink or indelible pencil
C ink only
D black ink only
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.

) According to the Rules of the Air, pilots wishing to practice an instrument approach in VMC with simulated instrument flight conditions must:
A carry a safety pilot in a second control seat
B carry a competent observer and notify ATC of their intentions
C carry a competent observer and obtain prior permission from ATC
D carry a competent observer who is able to communicate directly with the pilot
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/Rule23and24.htm


2) What is the width of a MATZ 'stub'?
A 2 nm
B 4 nm
C 5 nm
D 6 nm
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.


3) According to the Rules of the Air, an anti-collision light fitted to an aircraft means:
A A fixed or flashing red light
B A flashing red light
C A flashing white light
D A flashing red or white light
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.


4) What does a single yellow diagonal on a red square mean when displayed in the signals square of an aerodrome?
A Pilots must exercise special care when landing
B Landing prohibited at this time
C Landing permitted in emergency only
D Runway is closed at all times
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


5) What is a TNW bulletin?
A Advice concerning a terminal navigation waypoint
B Information concerning terminal (aerodrome) notified works
C Advice concerning a temporary navigation waypoint
D A temporary navigation warning
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.


6) You are required to produce your Pilot Licence by an authorised person. How long are you given to comply with this request?
A 5 days
B 10 days
C 28 days
D A 'reasonable time'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.


7) A pilot is (correctly) transmitting the transponder code 3612. The pilot is transmitting:
A an ATC assigned 'squawk' code
B the condition of distress
C the condition of radio failure
D the standard UK conspicuity code for normal operations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


8) Aerodrome elevation is usually described as:
A the highest point on the aerodrome
B the highest point on the apron
C the highest point on the landing area
D the average height of the aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


9) If you are intercepted by another aircraft, what should you do?
A Attempt to notify the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit
B Make a Mayday call on 121.5 MHz
C Take evading action
D Attempt to make an immediate landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


10) How often are aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) published?
A Weekly
B Fortnightly
C Monthly
D Annually
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


11) You are intending to fly VFR in accordance with the semicircular rule on a magnetic track of 185. Which of the following is your correct flight level?
A FL 30
B FL 35
C FL 45
D FL 40
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


12) When approaching to land at an aerodrome below a TMA or CTA, what altimeter setting should be used when flying below the transition altitude to avoid entering controlled airspace?
A Aerodrome QNH
B The Regional Pressure Setting
C Aerodrome QFE
D 1013 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


13) Two aircraft are both on a final approach. Under normal circumstances, which has priority?
A The aircraft that is lower
B The aircraft that is on 'long final'
C The aircraft that is larger
D The aircraft that has a higher approach speed
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


14) As part of your pre-flight check for a night flight, you discover that the green starboard navigation light has failed. Which of the following statements is in compliance with the Rules of the Air?
A The aircraft may depart from the aerodrome without restriction
B Approval to continue from Air Traffic Control is required prior to departure
C The flight may not depart from the aerodrome until the light is repaired or replaced
D The flight may continue providing that the aircraft operator (or owner) is informed
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


15) Whilst en route to your destination at night, you see a red and a green light ahead of you at your level. What does this mean?
A You are approaching a high obstruction, lit by markers
B You are approaching another aircraft in a (potentially) head on situation
C You are approaching a hot air balloon which is facing you
D You are approaching an aerodrome and the PAPI is indicating you are too high
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.


16) The QFE for the aerodrome is currently 1028 hectopascals. The QNH you have been given is 1030 hectopascals. Approximately what would you expect the aerodrome elevation to be?
A 34 ft
B 90 ft
C 30 ft
D 60 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.


17) According to the Air Navigation Order, which of the following would be classified as a 'flying machine'?
A An aeroplane (land or sea plane)
B A power driven airship
C A glider
D All of the above are classed as flying machines
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


18) An alerting service is provided in association with which of the following flight information services?
A Basic
B Traffic, Deconfliction, Procedural
C Deconfliction, Procedural
D Basic, Traffic, Deconfliction, Procedural
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/atsocas.htm


19) You are on final approach to a runway. What colour should the lights that mark the far end of the runway be?
A Red
B White
C Flashing yellow (side to side markers)
D Flashing red
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


20) In the absence of any special exemption, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class D airspace below FL 100?
A Transponder, VHF-COM, VOR
B VHF-COM and NAV
C VHF-COM
D VHF-COM and Transponder (with Mode Charlie)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.

Which of the following does NOT need to be read back to an Air Traffic Controller?
A A conditional clearance
B Runway in use
C Wind direction
D QNH altimeter setting
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


2) When Mode C is selected, a transponder can report altitude. The reported altitude is:
A the altitude displayed on the altimeter
B the pressure altitude using 1013.25 hPa
C the altitude using regional QNH
D the altitude using aerodrome QFE
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.


3) With respect to the Chicago Convention, regulations relating to entry and departure of international air traffic are those of the:
A contracting State in question
B State of registry
C International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO)
D European Aviation Safety Association (EASA)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


4) What is the recommended procedure regarding the use of line features for navigation?
A You should fly on the right where possible
B Always fly on the left of any line feature
C You should fly down the centre of the feature
D You should not follow line features as this is poor navigational practice
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


5) When approaching another aircraft in a head on situation, what should each pilot do?
A Turn to port
B Turn to starboard
C Turn to starboard and climb
D Turn to port and descend
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.


6) An obstacle which is 456 feet above ground level will:
A not be listed in the AIP
B be listed in the AIP and must be lit at night
C be listed in the AIP and may be lit at night
D be listed in the AIP and will not be lit at night
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


7) An intercepting aircraft indicates to you that you are now clear to proceed. How does it indicate this?
A An abrupt breakaway climbing turn
B By descending rapidly
C By firing a green flare
D By lowering its undercarriage
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


8) You have just departed an aerodrome, with QNH 1000 hectopascals set. You are passed the Regional Pressure Setting of 997 hectopascals. If your altimeter read 1630 before updating the setting, what will your altimeter read afterwards?
A 1720 feet
B 1540 feet
C 1585 feet
D 1640 feet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.


9) If a pilot selects a transponder code of 7000, what condition is being reported?
A Distress
B Unlawful interference
C Radio failure
D Normal operations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.


10) What is 'clutch QFE'?
A A QFE setting that is the lowest forecast QFE for that aerodrome
B The average value for QFE in a combined MATZ (CMATZ)
C A QFE setting that is suspected to be inaccurate
D The lowest value QFE in a combined MATZ (CMATZ)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.


11) What is a CMATZ?
A A MATZ which also has customs facilities at the aerodrome
B A MATZ which is in controlled airspace
C A MATZ which is controlled by a tower
D An area where more than one MATZ combine together
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.


12) If a pilot continues to hold a licence, despite not meeting international licensing standards in full, how should the licence be endorsed?
A With detailed particulars explaining the manner in which the pilot has not met the required standards
B With a special authorisation by the issuing State
C By the International Civil Aviation Organisation
D With a list of those States in which the pilot is permitted to exercise the privileges of the licence
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


13) You are on a three mile final, at night, and have been cleared to land. Air Traffic Control suddenly respond to a different aircraft, clearing them to make an immediate emergency landing. You should:
A speed up and land immediately, vacating the runway as soon as possible
B give way. You can then land after the other craft without further clearance
C give way. You must not land without a further clearance
D immediately contact ATC and advise them of your current position and intentions
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


14) How soon after a flight must your logbook entry be completed?
A As soon as is reasonably practical
B Within 12 hours of completion of the flight
C Within 48 hours of landing
D Within 24 hours of landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


15) Leaving aside any additional requirements, which of the following lists of items contains only those considered essential equipment for VFR flight?
A An altimeter, a compass and an accurate timing device
B An altimeter, a compass, a vertical speed indicator, and an accurate timing device
C An altimeter, a compass, an airspeed indicator, and an accurate timing device
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, an airspeed indicator, and a compass
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


16) ICAO Annex 12 describes a phase where the rescue coordination centre contacts search and rescue units, raising resources to immediate action status. What is the name given to this phase?
A Uncertainty phase
B Alert phase
C Distress phase
D Standby phase
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.


17) If you are flying IFR, and wish to comply with the semicircular rule, which of the following would be your correct level if you were flying eastbound?
A Odd thousands of feet (i.e. FL30, FL50)
B Even thousands of feet (i.e. FL40, FL60)
C Odd thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL35, FL55)
D Even thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL45, FL65)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


18) What does a single yellow diagonal on a red square mean when displayed in the signals square of an aerodrome?
A Pilots must exercise special care when landing
B Landing prohibited at this time
C Landing permitted in emergency only
D Runway is closed at all times
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


19) In accordance with ICAO Annex 7, the Certificate of Registration:
A must be carried in the aircraft on all flights
B must be kept by the aircraft operator in a secure location
C must be carried on international flights, and may be carried on domestic flights
D must be carried on all flights where the departure and arrival aerodrome are different
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


20) When overtaking another aircraft on the ground in the UK, you should:
A pass to the left of the other aircraft
B pass to the right of the other aircraft
C pass either side as required, maintaining adequate separation
D pass to the left of nosewheeled aircraft, and to the right of tailwheeled aircraft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.

Which of the following altimeter settings would give you height above an aerodrome?
A QNE
B QNH
C QGH
D QFE
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.


2) You are flying VFR in accordance with the semicircular rule on a magnetic track of 150. Which of the following is the correct flight level recommended?
A FL 15
B FL 55
C FL 60
D FL 30
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.


3) An aircraft taxying to the parking area is converging with a vehicle used for runway inspections. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The aircraft must give way
B The vehicle must give way to the aircraft
C That which has the other on its left must give way
D That which has the other on its right must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.


4) A pilot is approaching to land on the runway of an aerodrome that does not have an air traffic control unit. There is an aircraft ahead which has just landed. According to Rule 14, the pilot is only permitted to land if:
A the runway is clear of other aircraft
B both pilots are in agreement that the landing aircraft will be able to land safely
C the landing pilot is able to land without predjudice to the aircraft ahead
D the landing pilot has satisfied himself that any action will not interfere with the safety of others
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


5) A holder of a PPL(A) licence wishes to hire an aircraft from a local flying school. Who is responsible for determining that the weather conditions are suitable for the proposed flight?
A The pilot in command
B The aircraft owner
C The chief flying instructor of that school or, if they are absent, the duty instructor
D The duty instructor
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


6) Special VFR is a concession that:
A facilitates flights that would otherwise be restricted due to weather
B is at the discretion of the appropriate ATC unit
C facilitates flights that would otherwise be restricted due to weather and is at the discretion of the appropriate ATC unit
D allows aircraft to fly in Class A airspace under VFR
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


7) You see a single fixed red light ahead of you during a night flight. Assuming the light is correctly displayed, what could this be?
A It can only be a free balloon
B It can only be a glider
C It might be a glider or a free balloon
D It might be a glider, a free balloon or an airship
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


8) You see that an aerodrome is marked PPR. What does this mean?
A Prior permission is required to land here
B You require precision aids to land at this aerodrome
C This indicates the service facilities available
D Piston Propeller Required (i.e. No jet aircraft permitted)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


9) In the absence of any special exemption, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class D airspace below FL 100?
A Transponder, VHF-COM, VOR
B VHF-COM and NAV
C VHF-COM
D VHF-COM and Transponder (with Mode Charlie)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/airspace.htm


10) In which section of the AIP would you find information relating to airspace classifications?
A GEN
B ENR
C AD
D AIC
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.


11) When a notifiable accident occurs in or over the UK, the aircraft commander must notify:
A the Chief Inspector of Air Accidents
B the local police authority
C the aircraft owner
D both the Chief Inspector of Air Accidents and the local police authority
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.


12) What colour should runway threshold and wingbar lights be?
A Blue
B Yellow
C Green
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


13) You are flying over a small city with an elevation of 200 ft. The highest building in this area is 200 ft above ground level. Notwithstanding the requirement to 'land clear' in the event of engine failure, what minimum altitude should you maintain as you pass overhead?
A 1000 ft
B 1200 ft
C 1400 ft
D 1700 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/rule5amended.htm


14) In Class G airspace, which of the following most accurately describes your weather minima for VFR flight, if you are at an altitude of 2500 ft, and 100 kts?
A You must remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
B You must have an inflight visibility of at least 1800m
C You must maintain 1000 ft separation from cloud in all directions
D You must maintain 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical separation from cloud at all times
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.


15) You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is -31 ft. The QNH you have been given is 1029 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
A 1015 hectopascals
B 1030 hectopascals
C 1028 hectopascals
D 1032 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.


16) Which of the following lists is made up of those aircraft which must give way to a glider?
A Hot air balloons, Microlights, Aircraft towing other aircraft
B Airships, Hot air balloons
C Helicopters, Microlights, Power driven fixed wing aircraft
D Hot air balloons, Helicopters, Microlights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


17) Entries in a personal flying logbook must be made in:
A ink or pencil
B ink or indelible pencil
C ink only
D black ink only
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.


18) Which of the following does NOT need to be read back to an Air Traffic Controller?
A A conditional clearance
B Runway in use
C Wind direction
D QNH altimeter setting
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.


19) What period of time must engine and propeller logbooks be kept for, after the destruction or withdrawal from service of the unit to which the logbook refers?
A 12 months
B 24 months
C 30 months
D 36 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.


20) On what colour paper would you expect to find an aeronautical information circular (AIC) concerning administration matters?
A Green
B Yellow
C Blue
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.

When a notifiable accident occurs in or over the UK, the aircraft commander must notify:
A the Chief Inspector of Air Accidents
B the local police authority
C the aircraft owner
D both the Chief Inspector of Air Accidents and the local police authority
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.


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