7) According to ICAO, runway end lighting should comprise:
A flashing red unidirectional lights
B fixed red and white unidirectional lights
C fixed red unidirectional lights
D fixed red omnidirectional lights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
8) When a search and rescue (SAR) operation is initiated, responsibility for alerting individual search and rescue units lies with:
A the aircraft operator
B the aircraft commander
C the rescue coordination centre
D the relevant air traffic control unit
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
9) An accurate timing device is required for VFR flight. What other items of equipment must be carried as a minimum on VFR flights?
A A compass, GPS, turn coordinator, a vertical speed indicator and an altimeter
B A compass, a turn coordinator, and an airspeed indicator
C An altimeter, a compass, and an airspeed indicator
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, a compass, and an airspeed indicator
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
10) What is the correct vertical limit of a MATZ?
A 3000 ft above aerodrome level
B 2000 ft above aerodrome level
C 3000 ft above mean sea level
D 2000 ft above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
11) What should you do if your anti-collision light(s) fail during a flight conducted between the hours of sunrise and sunset?
A Land as soon as is reasonably practical to do so
B Continue - no action is required unless you are in CAS (Controlled Airspace)
C Continue, provided the light is repaired at the earliest practicable opportunity
D You may continue, provided you gain approval from Air Traffic Control
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
12) At what distance should you call 'final' on approach to a landing?
A 4 nautical miles or less
B 5 nautical miles or more
C 10 nautical miles
D 6 nautical miles or less
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
13) If an aircraft from one ICAO contracting State lands in another State, certain items are exempt from customs duties. Which of the following best describes what these items are?
A Fuel, lubricating oils, spare parts and regular equipment remaining on board
B Fuel contained in aircraft tanks and spare containers of lubricating and hydraulic oils
C Fuel and any spare parts that are specific to that aircraft providing that they remain on board
D All items that remain on board for the duration of the period spent in the foreign contracting State
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) A Royal flight is to take place entirely in Class G airspace. Which of the following statements is correct?
A The airspace will remain Class G but details of the flight will be promulgated by NOTAM
B Temporary Class B airspace will be established along the route
C Temporary Class D airspace will be established along the route
D Temporary Class A airspace will be established along the route
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/royalflights.htm
15) Subject to certain requirements and restrictions, the holder of a PPL(A) licence is able to engage in aerial work as pilot in command in the UK. Which of the following activities may be undertaken?
A agricultural crop spraying
B banner towing
C aerial photography and banner towing
D glider towing and the dropping of parachutists
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
16) A student pilot wishes to make a series of practice landings at an unlicensed aerodrome. Are they able to do so?
A No
B Yes, providing that written permission is obtained from the aerodrome operator
C Yes, providing that the commander is satisfied that the aerodrome facilities are adequate
D No, unless written permission is obtained from the CAA under Rule 6 (exemptions)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/unlicensedaerodromes.htm
17) What name is given to the area of the aerodrome used for take-off, landing and taxying?
A The apron
B The manoeuvring area
C The taxiway
D The runway
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) Aeronautical night is defined as being from:
A sunset to sunrise
B 30 minutes before sunset to 30 minutes after sunrise
C 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise
D 60 minutes after sunset to 60 minutes before sunrise
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
19) If a pilot selects a transponder code of 7500, what condition is being reported?
A Distress
B Parachute dropping is shortly to commence
C Parachute dropping operations in progress
D Unlawful interference
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
20) A Certificate of Release to Service is required when:
A any part of the aircraft has been overhauled, replaced or modified
B the aircraft is due for a service
C the aircraft is permitted an extension to its normal service interval
D the aircraft is passed from the owner to the service engineer(s)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
) 'Long final' is deemed to be when you are:
A approximately 6 nautical miles from the runway threshold
B 10 nautical miles from the runway threshold
C less than 4 nautical miles from the runway threshold
D between 4 and 8 nautical miles from the runway threshold
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
2) An important document concerning Take-off, Climb and Landing performance, printed on pink paper, is an example of:
A a Class 2 NOTAM
B an aeronautical information circular (AIC)
C a temporary warning (TW)
D a mandatory operational procedure issued by the ICAO Chicago Convention
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
3) You are overflying a congested area. Which of the following best describes your minimum height requirement?
A You must be at least 500ft above the area
B You must be at least 1500ft above the area
C You must be at least 2000ft above the area
D You must be able to 'land clear' in the event of an emergency
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/rule5amended.htm
4) Which of the following altimeter settings is used when describing flight levels?
A QFE
B QNH
C 1013 hPa
D 1000 hPa
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
5) What is a CMATZ?
A A MATZ which also has customs facilities at the aerodrome
B A MATZ which is in controlled airspace
C A MATZ which is controlled by a tower
D An area where more than one MATZ combine together
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
6) What colour should runway threshold and wingbar lights be?
A Blue
B Yellow
C Green
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
7) The pilot in command is the:
A person responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft throughout the flight
B person who for the time being is in charge of the piloting of an aircraft
C most senior pilot in the aircraft irrespective of whether they are at the flight controls
D pilot who authorises the flight's departure
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
8) In the absence of any special exemption, which of the following correctly describes the minimum equipment required for a private flight under VFR into Class D airspace below FL 100?
A Transponder, VHF-COM, VOR
B VHF-COM and NAV
C VHF-COM
D VHF-COM and Transponder (with Mode Charlie)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/airspace.htm
9) Whilst en route within the UK, what would be the most suitable altimeter setting for a flight at 2300 ft?
A QNE
B QFE
C 1013 hPa
D Regional Pressure Setting
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
10) Operators of non-complex aircraft are required to keep:
A an aircraft logbook
B an engine logbook
C a propeller logbook
D both an aircraft logbook and an engine logbook
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
11) An aircraft taxying for departure is converging with a tractor unit towing another aircraft. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The tractor towing the aircraft must give way
B The aircraft taxying for departure must give way
C The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its right must give way
D The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its left must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
12) You have been intercepted and have been requested to land at an aerodrome you consider inadequate for your aircraft. How do you signal to the intercepting aircraft that you cannot land here?
A Raise your landing gear (if possible) and make an abrupt turn out of the aerodrome circuit
B Switch off your landing light and continue past the designated aerodrome
C Rock your wings once
D Overfly the runway and then circle the aerodrome maintaining a height between 1000 and 2000 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
13) You are intending to fly in accordance with the semicircular rule and anticipate that your magnetic track will be north east. The QNH is 1030 hPa. Which of the following is your lowest available flight level?
A FL 35
B FL 50
C FL 70
D FL 45
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) What is the normal transponder conspicuity code in the UK?
A 2000
B 7000
C 7500
D 1200
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
15) You (sensibly) decide to complete the IMC course after your PPL. Which of the following correctly describes the situation regarding this national rating?
A National ratings are valid in all contracting states
B National ratings are never valid in other states
C National ratings may be accepted at the discretion of other states
D National ratings are valid in all contracting states other than the USA
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) The Regional Pressure Setting is the:
A highest current QNH for aerodromes within that region
B highest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
C average forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
D lowest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
17) Entries in a personal flying logbook must be made in:
A ink or pencil
B ink or indelible pencil
C ink only
D black ink only
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) If you receive a local anaesthetic, for how long must you wait before you can fly as pilot in command?
A 3 hours
B 6 hours
C 12 hours
D 24 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
19) In the UK, Class B airspace is:
A allocated above FL245
B allocated at and above FL100
C allocated at and above 3000 ft
D not allocated
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/ukclassc.htm
20) Which type of airspace permits IFR and VFR flight, where all flights are subject to ATC service and are separated from each other?
A Class D
B Class C
C Class B
D Class A
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
According to Rule 5 of the Rules of the Air, aircraft intending to drop articles outside of an aerodrome's ATZ are:
A required to obtain CAA permission and are exempt from the 500 ft rule
B exempt from the 500 ft rule and are not required to obtain CAA permission
C not exempt from the 500 ft rule
D exempt from the 500 ft rule providing they are at least 1000 m from any person, vehicle or structure
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
2) You are flying in a control zone under Special VFR (SVFR). Who is responsible for maintaining terrain clearance?
A The pilot in command
B The air traffic controller
C Both the pilot and the controller in partnership
D The pilot, unless the aircraft is in receipt of a 'deconfliction' service
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
3) If a pilot selects a transponder code of 7000, what condition is being reported?
A Distress
B Unlawful interference
C Radio failure
D Normal operations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) Unless otherwise defined by the relevant authority, the definition of 'night' is the time between:
A the end of evening civil twilight and the start of morning civil twilight the next day
B sunset and sunrise
C twilight and dawn
D the start of evening civil twilight and the end of morning civil twilight the next day
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
5) An aircraft taxying to the parking area is converging with a vehicle used for runway inspections. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The aircraft must give way
B The vehicle must give way to the aircraft
C That which has the other on its left must give way
D That which has the other on its right must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
6) Air Traffic Controllers may close a licensed aerodrome in certain conditions. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A ATC may close the aerodrome if the landing area is unfit
B ATC may close the aerodrome if essential facilities have failed
C Providing that details have been publicised by NOTAM, ATC may close the aerodrome for any reason
D ATC may close the aerodrome if, in their opinion, weather conditions have significantly deteriorated
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
7) A request for a MATZ penetration should be made:
A at least 15 nm or 5 minutes flying time from the MATZ boundary
B as soon as you are within 3 nm of the zone boundary
C prior to departure
D no less than 3 minutes prior to reaching the boundary
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
8) Which type of airspace permits IFR flight only, where all flights are subject to ATC service and are separated from each other?
A Class A
B Class B
C Class C
D Class D
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) Whilst en route within the UK, what would be the most suitable altimeter setting for a flight at 2300 ft?
A QNE
B QFE
C 1013 hPa
D Regional Pressure Setting
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
10) In the AIP, where would you find information on specific aerodromes?
A ENR
B GEN
C AIC
D AD
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
11) Having just landed at a grass airfield with no Air Traffic Control (ATC), on which side of the landing area would you normally expect to turn off?
A The left
B The right
C It doesn't matter
D You should continue to the end of the landing area before commencing your turn
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
12) From 8th April 2012, what sort of medical are EASA private pilots required to have?
A A Class 1 medical under FCL 3
B A Class 2 medical under Part-MED
C A Class 2 medical under JAR FCL 2
D A Class 3 medical under Part-MED
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
13) You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 57 ft. The QNH you have been given is 1031 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
A 1029 hectopascals
B 1001 hectopascals
C 1032 hectopascals
D 1009 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) How many hours of Pilot in Command (PIC) time may be credited towards a PPL (A) licence for those already holding a licence for helicopters, three axis microlights or gliders?
A 10% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 10 hours
B 10% of the PIC time
C 5% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 20 hours
D 5% of the PIC time up to a maximum of 10 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
15) Which of the following statements regarding aerobatic manoeuvres over a congested area is true?
A Aerobatic manoeuvres are not permitted
B Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are at 3000 ft or higher
C Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are able to 'land clear' if required
D Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you have consent of the appropriate ATC unit
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
16) You wish to carry passengers during daylight hours. How many take-offs and landing must you have completed in the last 90 days?
A Three, as the sole manipulator of the controls
B Three, in the company of an instructor
C One, as the sole manipulator of the controls
D Three, as pilot in command of which at least one must be in the company of an instructor
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
17) According to the Air Navigation Order, which of the following would be classified as a 'flying machine'?
A An aeroplane (land or sea plane)
B A power driven airship
C A glider
D All of the above are classed as flying machines
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) What should you do if your anti-collision light(s) fail during a flight conducted between the hours of sunrise and sunset?
A Land as soon as is reasonably practical to do so
B Continue - no action is required unless you are in CAS (Controlled Airspace)
C Continue, provided the light is repaired at the earliest practicable opportunity
D You may continue, provided you gain approval from Air Traffic Control
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
19) What is 'clutch QFE'?
A A QFE setting that is the lowest forecast QFE for that aerodrome
B The average value for QFE in a combined MATZ (CMATZ)
C A QFE setting that is suspected to be inaccurate
D The lowest value QFE in a combined MATZ (CMATZ)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
20) With respect to the Chicago Convention, certain aircraft are permitted to make flights into or across the territory of another State without permission. To whom does this apply?
A All aircraft of other States
B All aircraft of other States, providing they are landing in that State
C All aircraft engaged on scheduled services (only)
D All aircraft, other than those on scheduled services
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
Which of the following does NOT need to be read back to an Air Traffic Controller?
A A conditional clearance
B Runway in use
C Wind direction
D QNH altimeter setting
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
2) Rule 14 states that a flying machine about to take off shall take up position and manoeuvre in such a way as to leave clear on one side any aircraft which has already taken off or is about to take off. Which side (as seen by the pilot) should be left clear? (The aerodrome does not confine take-offs and landings to a runway.)
A Left
B Right
C Left (if a left hand circuit is in force) or Right (if a right hand circuit is in force)
D Left (if a right hand circuit is in force) or Right (if a left hand circuit is in force)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
3) When a search and rescue (SAR) operation is initiated, responsibility for alerting individual search and rescue units lies with:
A the aircraft operator
B the aircraft commander
C the rescue coordination centre
D the relevant air traffic control unit
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
4) You are planning to take a friend for a flight, which will land 40 minutes after sunset. How many take-offs and landings must you have completed (as sole manipulator of the controls) in the last 90 days prior to this flight?
A One (which must have been completed at night)
B Three
C Three (of which one must have been at night)
D Four (three of which must be by day, and one by night)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/paxatnight.htm
5) An aeronautical beacon at a civil aerodrome will show:
A a three letter morse group signal in green
B a two letter morse group signal in red
C a flashing white light
D a three letter morse group signal in red
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) According to the provisions of the Chicago Convention, a foreign aircraft flying in a State shall abide by:
A the regulations of the State in which it is flying
B the regulations of the State of registration
C international regulations that apply to all States
D the regulations of the State where the aircraft is insured
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
7) You see a single fixed red light ahead of you during a night flight. What is this likely to be?
A It could be a hot air balloon
B It could be the starboard navigation light of another aircraft
C It could be the landing light of a helicopter
D It could be an aerodrome identification beacon
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
8) Which of the following scenarios would be considered to be a notifiable accident?
A A part falls from your aircraft injuring someone beneath you
B You make a heavy landing and burst a tyre
C The engine fails and you make a successful forced landing in a field
D You discover damage to the undercarriage of your aircraft after a landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) On what colour paper would you expect to find an aeronautical information circular (AIC) concerning administration matters?
A Green
B Yellow
C Blue
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
10) You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 85 ft. The QNH you have been given is 998 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
A 995 hectopascals
B 1000 hectopascals
C 997 hectopascals
D 989 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
11) Leaving aside any additional requirements, which of the following lists of items contains only those considered essential equipment for VFR flight?
A An altimeter, a compass and an accurate timing device
B An altimeter, a compass, a vertical speed indicator, and an accurate timing device
C An altimeter, a compass, an airspeed indicator, and an accurate timing device
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, an airspeed indicator, and a compass
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
12) You see another aircraft approaching on a converging course on your starboard side. Who has priority?
A You do, maintain your course and altitude
B The other aircraft
C Neither have priority, both should turn to avoid each other.
D You do, but you should turn to starboard to lessen the risk of collision
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
13) In the AIP, where would you find information on specific aerodromes?
A ENR
B GEN
C AIC
D AD
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
14) Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions
B carry a 'competent observer'
C hold an Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) rating (or higher qualification)
D inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a 'competent observer'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
15) If you elected to fly IFR, how should you describe your vertical position when you are above the transition altitude?
A Height
B Altitude, using the Regional Pressure Setting
C Flight Level
D Altitude, using the QNH for the nearest aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) In order to revalidate a single engine piston class rating by experience, within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating a holder of a PPL(A) licence is required to complete a minimum number of flying hours, take-offs and landings. Within this period, they must also complete a:
A one hour training flight with an instructor
B two hour training flight with an instructor
C flight assessment with an examiner
D flight assessment with an examiner in the final three months prior to rating expiry
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
17) An aircraft taxying for departure is converging with a tractor unit towing another aircraft. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The tractor towing the aircraft must give way
B The aircraft taxying for departure must give way
C The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its right must give way
D The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its left must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
18) What does a white double cross indicate, when displayed in the signals square of an aerodrome?
A Runway surfaces are poor
B Gliding is taking place at this aerodrome
C Parachuting is taking place at this aerodrome
D Runway is closed - do not land here
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
19) The altimeter reading with a pressure setting of 1013 hPa describes your:
A height above aerodrome level
B altitude above aerodrome level
C distance above that pressure level
D altitude above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
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