14) Under the terms of the Chicago Convention, who has the duty to ensure that aircraft in flight comply with the rules and regulations?
A The State of registry of the aircraft
B The State over which the flight takes place
C The State of registry of the aircraft and any State entered by the aircraft
D The pilot in command
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) A NOTAMC:
A cancels a previous NOTAM
B corrects a previous NOTAM
C clarifies an existing NOTAM
D is a NOTAM with the information identifier 'Charlie'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
16) Cost sharing between a Private Pilot licence holder and three other passengers for a private flight is:
A prohibited
B permitted, providing that the pilot contributes a quarter share of the costs
C permitted only with prior approval of the Civil Aviation Authority
D permitted, providing the aircraft has a public transport certificate of airworthiness
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) A Certificate of Release to Service is required when:
A any part of the aircraft has been overhauled, replaced or modified
B the aircraft is due for a service
C the aircraft is permitted an extension to its normal service interval
D the aircraft is passed from the owner to the service engineer(s)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) An intercepting aircraft indicates to you that you are now clear to proceed. How does it indicate this?
A An abrupt breakaway climbing turn
B By descending rapidly
C By firing a green flare
D By lowering its undercarriage
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
19) What altimeter setting should normally be set for takeoff and initial climb?
A 1013 hPa
B Aerodrome QNH (or QFE if staying within the circuit)
C QDR
D Regional Pressure Setting
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
20) On what colour paper would you expect to find an aeronautical information circular (AIC) concerning administration matters?
A Green
B Yellow
C Blue
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
1) What does a white double cross indicate, when displayed in the signals square of an aerodrome?
A Runway surfaces are poor
B Gliding is taking place at this aerodrome
C Parachuting is taking place at this aerodrome
D Runway is closed - do not land here
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
2) 'Long final' is deemed to be when you are:
A approximately 6 nautical miles from the runway threshold
B 10 nautical miles from the runway threshold
C less than 4 nautical miles from the runway threshold
D between 4 and 8 nautical miles from the runway threshold
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
3) What minimum height are you required to maintain when overflying a large open-air gathering of 1000 people or more?
A 1000 m
B 500 ft
C 1000 ft
D 3000 m
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/rule5amended.htm
4) When overtaking another aircraft on the ground in the UK, you should:
A pass to the left of the other aircraft
B pass to the right of the other aircraft
C pass either side as required, maintaining adequate separation
D pass to the left of nosewheeled aircraft, and to the right of tailwheeled aircraft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
5) What altitude is the transition altitude over most of the UK set at?
A 2000 ft
B 3000 ft
C 5000 ft
D 6000 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
6) If an aircraft's certificate of airworthiness has been endorsed by an ICAO contracting State as failing to satisfy the standard at time of certification, it:
A may not be flown in any ICAO State
B may not be flown on international flights
C may not be flown on international flights unless prior permission is obtained from the State being entered
D may only be flown to an approved testing station
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
7) You are on a converging course with another aircraft, but you have the right of way. What should you do?
A Maintain level flight and heading, and monitor the situation
B Climb and turn away from the other aircraft
C Descend until you are clear of the other aircraft
D Maintain course and speed and monitor the situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
8) You are flying VFR in accordance with the semicircular rule on a magnetic track of 300. Which of the following is the correct flight level recommended?
A FL 55
B FL 50
C FL 60
D FL 65
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
9) As part of your pre-flight check for a night flight, you discover that the green starboard navigation light has failed. Which of the following statements is in compliance with the Rules of the Air?
A The aircraft may depart from the aerodrome without restriction
B Approval to continue from Air Traffic Control is required prior to departure
C The flight may not depart from the aerodrome until the light is repaired or replaced
D The flight may continue providing that the aircraft operator (or owner) is informed
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
10) When a search and rescue (SAR) operation is initiated, responsibility for alerting individual search and rescue units lies with:
A the aircraft operator
B the aircraft commander
C the rescue coordination centre
D the relevant air traffic control unit
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
11) In the UK, Airways are ________ airspace. What are the missing words?
A Class B or Class A
B Class C
C Class A or Class C
D Class B
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/ukclassc.htm
12) When planning to operate at an unlicensed aerodrome, not listed in the AIP you are:
A advised to obtain permission and airfield information from the aerodrome operator
B required by law to file a flight plan for any flight involving an unlicensed aerodrome
C able to take-off or land without requiring permission from the aerodrome operator
D not required to obtain prior permission to land
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
13) What is the recommended procedure regarding the use of line features for navigation?
A You should fly on the right where possible
B Always fly on the left of any line feature
C You should fly down the centre of the feature
D You should not follow line features as this is poor navigational practice
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) What is the correct vertical limit of a MATZ?
A 3000 ft above aerodrome level
B 2000 ft above aerodrome level
C 3000 ft above mean sea level
D 2000 ft above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
15) A NOTAMC:
A cancels a previous NOTAM
B corrects a previous NOTAM
C clarifies an existing NOTAM
D is a NOTAM with the information identifier 'Charlie'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
16) For how long is an EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid, if you are less than 40 years old at the time of the medical?
A 12 months
B 24 months
C 60 months
D 60 months or your 42nd birthday, whichever is sooner
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
17) What transponder code would you set in an emergency?
A 2003
B 7500
C 7700
D 7600
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
18) Pilots studying for their EASA PPL(A) are allowed to fly solo, once they are:
A deemed to be sufficiently competent, at any age.
B 18 years old
C 17 years old
D 16 years old
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
19) What period of time must engine and propeller logbooks be kept for, after the destruction or withdrawal from service of the unit to which the logbook refers?
A 12 months
B 24 months
C 30 months
D 36 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
20) The Regional Pressure Setting is the:
A highest current QNH for aerodromes within that region
B highest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
C average forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
D lowest forecast QNH for any aerodrome within that region
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
1) As part of your pre-flight check for a night flight, you discover that the green starboard navigation light has failed. Which of the following statements is in compliance with the Rules of the Air?
A The aircraft may depart from the aerodrome without restriction
B Approval to continue from Air Traffic Control is required prior to departure
C The flight may not depart from the aerodrome until the light is repaired or replaced
D The flight may continue providing that the aircraft operator (or owner) is informed
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
2) A pilot is following the coastline and transiting controlled airspace in accordance with ATC instructions. Which of the following statements is correct?
A The pilot should keep the coastline on their left
B The pilot should keep the coastline on their right
C The pilot is not required to keep the coastline on any particular side
D The pilot should keep the coastline on their left unless above the transition altitude
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
3) What is the width of a MATZ 'stub'?
A 2 nm
B 4 nm
C 5 nm
D 6 nm
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
4) You are reviewing some aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) which are printed on yellow paper. What subject do they concern?
A Operational matters including ATS facilities and requirements
B Safety related topics
C Maps and Charts
D UK Airspace Restrictions
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
5) What is the standard ground to air search and rescue visual signal used to indicate the meaning 'affirmative' (or 'yes')?
A A letter 'Y' laid out on the ground
B A letter 'A' laid out on the ground
C A large tick shape laid out on the ground
D A plus sign laid out on the ground
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
6) 'Long final' is deemed to be when you are:
A approximately 6 nautical miles from the runway threshold
B 10 nautical miles from the runway threshold
C less than 4 nautical miles from the runway threshold
D between 4 and 8 nautical miles from the runway threshold
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
7) What is the usual altimeter setting for flight outside controlled airspace whilst en route at 2000 ft?
A QFE
B The Regional Pressure Setting
C 1013 hPa
D The QNH for your destination aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
8) An obstacle which is 456 feet above ground level will:
A not be listed in the AIP
B be listed in the AIP and must be lit at night
C be listed in the AIP and may be lit at night
D be listed in the AIP and will not be lit at night
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
9) After a flight, when must the technical log for an aircraft in the Public Transport category be completed?
A Before it is flown by the next pilot
B At the end of the day
C Within 12 hours of the flight
D Before it is flown by the next pilot or at the end of the day, whichever is the sooner
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
10) An aeronautical identification beacon at a military aerodrome will show:
A a three letter morse group signal in green
B a two letter morse group signal in red
C a three letter morse group signal in red
D a two letter morse group signal in green
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) Airships must give way to:
A flying machines, gliders and balloons
B gliders and balloons
C flying machines and balloons
D flying machines and gliders
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
12) Identify the type of airspace from the following description: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. IFR flights are subject to ATC service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical.
A Class B
B Class C
C Class D
D Class E
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
13) You are flying in a control zone under Special VFR (SVFR). Who is responsible for maintaining terrain clearance?
A The pilot in command
B The air traffic controller
C Both the pilot and the controller in partnership
D The pilot, unless the aircraft is in receipt of a 'deconfliction' service
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
14) For how long is an EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid, if you are exactly 39 years old at the time of the medical?
A 60 months
B 12 months
C 24 months
D 36 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
15) Under what conditions may a pilot transfer their licence from one member State to another?
A If the pilot resides in that State for 91 days or more
B If the pilot takes up employment or normal residence in that State
C If the pilot is granted a visa allowing them to work in that State
D If they are a resident of that State, or will become so within 185 days
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
16) Article 9 of the Air Navigation Order sets out the purposes for which an aircraft may fly. In what Certificate of Airworthiness category must an aircraft used for rental be?
A Special
B Private
C Aerial Work
D Transport
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
17) If an aircraft from one ICAO contracting State lands in another State, certain items are exempt from customs duties. Which of the following best describes what these items are?
A Fuel, lubricating oils, spare parts and regular equipment remaining on board
B Fuel contained in aircraft tanks and spare containers of lubricating and hydraulic oils
C Fuel and any spare parts that are specific to that aircraft providing that they remain on board
D All items that remain on board for the duration of the period spent in the foreign contracting State
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) You encounter severe windshear and low level turbulence on approach to an aerodrome. According to Rule 4, what should you do?
A There is no legal requirement to do anything
B A report must be made to London or Scottish Information immediately
C A report must be made to Air Traffic Control as soon as possible
D A report should be made to Air Traffic Control after landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
19) Unless otherwise defined by the relevant authority, the definition of 'night' is the time between:
A the end of evening civil twilight and the start of morning civil twilight the next day
B sunset and sunrise
C twilight and dawn
D the start of evening civil twilight and the end of morning civil twilight the next day
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
20) If you are flying VFR, and wish to comply with the semicircular rule, which of the following would be your correct level if you were flying due north?
A Odd thousands of feet (i.e. FL30, FL50)
B Even thousands of feet (i.e. FL40, FL60)
C Odd thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL35, FL55)
D Even thousands of feet plus 500 (i.e. FL45, FL65)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
1) Do the Rules of the Air permit flying in formation?
A Yes, providing that the commanders have agreed to do so
B No
C No, unless an approved course of formation flying has been completed
D Yes, providing that permission from CAA is obtained at least 72 hrs prior to the proposed flight
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
2) For the award of an EASA Private Pilot's Licence, how many hours solo experience must you have logged?
A 5 hours
B 10 hours
C No specific requirement providing training is completed
D Not less than 10 hours, up to a maximum of 100 hours
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
3) You are overflying a congested area. Which of the following best describes your minimum height requirement?
A You must be at least 500ft above the area
B You must be at least 1500ft above the area
C You must be at least 2000ft above the area
D You must be able to 'land clear' in the event of an emergency
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/rule5amended.htm
4) What should you do if a wing navigation light fails during a night flight?
A Continue - no action is required
B See if you can conduct an in-flight repair
C Land as soon as is reasonably practical to do so
D Immediately switch off the remaining lights to avoid creating a misleading situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
5) An intercepting aircraft indicates that you are to follow. How do you signal that you have understood and will comply?
A Rock your wings and follow the other aircraft
B Switch on your navigation lights and follow the other aircraft
C Flash your landing light once and then follow the other aircraft
D Make small changes in pitch attitude to 'nod' your assent
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
6) You are flying in a control zone under Special VFR (SVFR). Who is responsible for maintaining terrain clearance?
A The pilot in command
B The air traffic controller
C Both the pilot and the controller in partnership
D The pilot, unless the aircraft is in receipt of a 'deconfliction' service
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
7) You see a red navigation light out to your right whilst flying at night, on a constant relative bearing. Which of the following is correct?
A The aircraft is flying away from you
B There is a risk of collision
C There is no risk of collision
D There is a risk of collision but you have priority in this situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
8) You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 91 ft. The QNH you have been given is 1023 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
A 1016 hectopascals
B 1026 hectopascals
C 1028 hectopascals
D 1020 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
9) On what colour paper would you expect to find an aeronautical information circular (AIC) concerning administration matters?
A Green
B Yellow
C Blue
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
10) You are intending to fly VFR in accordance with the semicircular rule on a magnetic track of 195. Which of the following is your correct flight level?
A FL 40
B FL 45
C FL 50
D FL 55
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) When you are on the correct glide slope, using a PAPI (Precision Approach Path Indicator), you will see:
A one red light and one white light
B three green lights
C two red and two white lights
D two white lights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
12) In level flight above the transition altitude (usually 3000ft), what altimeter setting should be used by pilots flying IFR?
A Regional Pressure Setting
B QNH
C 1013 hPa
D Either QFE or QNH (at the pilots discretion)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) Effective 15th March 2007, Class C airspace is designated in the UK:
A above FL195
B above FL185
C above FL185 and up to FL245
D above FL195 and up to FL245
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/ukclassc.htm
14) NOTAMS are circulated by:
A telephone
B first class mail
C the aeronautical teleprinter network
D e-mail
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) A pilot is (correctly) transmitting the transponder code 0033. The pilot is transmitting:
A an ATC assigned en-route 'squawk' code
B the special code to indicate that parachute operations are under way
C a special code to indicate VHF communications radio failure
D the standard UK conspicuity code for normal operations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
16) What is indicated by a yellow square board with a black 'C' on it?
A Customs facilities
B The aerodrome authority (such as ATC)
C Circuits are currently prohibited
D Circuit training is underway
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
17) In which classes of airspace is a VFR pilot required to obtain an Air Traffic Control (ATC) clearance to enter?
A Classes A to E
B Classes A to D
C Classes B to E
D Classes B to D
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
18) A Certificate of Maintenance Review is required for aircraft with a Certificate of Airworthiness in the:
A private, aerial work and transport categories
B aerial work and transport categories
C private and transport categories
D transport (only) category
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
19) When flying more than 50nm from land, ICAO Annex 6 states that single engined aircraft shall be equipped with:
A liferafts and lifejackets
B lifejackets
C hydrostatically released liferafts
D lifejackets and a liferaft equipped with an emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
20) Is flying training permitted at unlicensed aerodromes?
A No
B Yes, providing the aircraft has a maximum total weight authorised of no more than 5700 kg
C Yes, providing the aircraft has a maximum total weight authorised of no more than 2730 kg
D Yes, providing the aerodrome operator has given permission
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
1) Who has the final authority over operations of an aircraft in flight?
A The pilot in command
B The aircraft owner or operator
C Air Traffic Control
D The person who is flying the aircraft at that time
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
2) Which of the following lists is made up of those aircraft which must give way to a glider?
A Hot air balloons, Microlights, Aircraft towing other aircraft
B Airships, Hot air balloons
C Helicopters, Microlights, Power driven fixed wing aircraft
D Hot air balloons, Helicopters, Microlights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
3) Leaving aside any additional requirements, which of the following lists of items contains only those considered essential equipment for VFR flight?
A An altimeter, a compass and an accurate timing device
B An altimeter, a compass, a vertical speed indicator, and an accurate timing device
C An altimeter, a compass, an airspeed indicator, and an accurate timing device
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, an airspeed indicator, and a compass
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
4) An aeronautical beacon at a civil aerodrome will show:
A a three letter morse group signal in green
B a two letter morse group signal in red
C a flashing white light
D a three letter morse group signal in red
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
5) What is the correct vertical limit of a MATZ?
A 3000 ft above aerodrome level
B 2000 ft above aerodrome level
C 3000 ft above mean sea level
D 2000 ft above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
6) For how long is an EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid, if you are exactly 39 years old at the time of the medical?
A 60 months
B 12 months
C 24 months
D 36 months
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
7) Which of the following statements regarding aerobatic manoeuvres over a congested area is true?
A Aerobatic manoeuvres are not permitted
B Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are at 3000 ft or higher
C Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you are able to 'land clear' if required
D Aerobatic manoeuvres are permitted providing you have consent of the appropriate ATC unit
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
8) Which of the following pilot maintenance procedures is NOT permitted under the Air Navigation (General) Regulations?
A replacement of batteries
B replacement of a VHF communication transceiver
C replacement of safety belts or safety harnesses
D replacement of a VOR receiver
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
9) An applicant for an EASA PPL(A) must have completed a solo cross country flight in accordance with which of the following minimum parameters?
A A flight of at least 270 km with at least one landing at a different aerodrome en-route
B A flight of at least 100 nm with two full stop landings at different aerodromes en-route
C A flight of at least 150 nm with two full stop landings at different aerodromes en-route
D A flight of at least 150 nm which may be completed as a single sector flight
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
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