According to Rule 5 of the Rules of the Air, aircraft intending to pick up or drop articles (such as tow ropes or banners) at an aerodrome are:
A exempt from the 500 ft rule providing they are at least 1000 ft from any person, vehicle or structure
B exempt from the 500 ft rule providing they are at least 1000 m from any person, vehicle or structure
C exempt from the 500 ft rule
D required to obtain prior permission in writing from the CAA to obtain exemption from the 500 ft rule
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
2) After landing in a remote area, you decide to lay out a ground signal to indicate you require medical attention. What is this signal?
A A letter X
B A letter M
C A cross (+) with a circle around it
D A letter V
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
3) Identify the type of airspace from the following description: IFR and VFR flights are permitted. IFR flights are subject to ATC service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive traffic information as far as is practical.
A Class B
B Class C
C Class D
D Class E
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) Leaving aside any additional requirements, which of the following lists of items contains only those considered essential equipment for VFR flight?
A An altimeter, a compass and an accurate timing device
B An altimeter, a compass, a vertical speed indicator, and an accurate timing device
C An altimeter, a compass, an airspeed indicator, and an accurate timing device
D An altimeter, a turn coordinator, an airspeed indicator, and a compass
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
5) Aerodrome elevation is usually described as:
A the highest point on the aerodrome
B the highest point on the apron
C the highest point on the landing area
D the average height of the aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
6) Pilots practising instrument approaches in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) must:
A inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions
B carry a 'competent observer'
C hold an Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) rating (or higher qualification)
D inform Air Traffic Control of their intentions and carry a 'competent observer'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
7) What should you do if a wing navigation light fails during a night flight?
A Continue - no action is required
B See if you can conduct an in-flight repair
C Land as soon as is reasonably practical to do so
D Immediately switch off the remaining lights to avoid creating a misleading situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
8) If a pilot selects a transponder code of 7700, what condition is being reported?
A Distress
B Unlawful interference
C Radio failure
D Parachute dropping
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
9) Is a Certificate of Maintenance Review required for an aircraft used for flying training?
A No, because flying training is not classed as 'aerial work'
B No, because flying training is not classified in the 'transport' category
C Yes, because flying training is classed as 'aerial work'
D Yes, because flying training is classified in the 'transport' category
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
10) At what distance should you call 'final' on approach to a landing?
A 4 nautical miles or less
B 5 nautical miles or more
C 10 nautical miles
D 6 nautical miles or less
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
11) What is the name given to the lowest flight level available for cruising above the transition altitude?
A The transition layer
B The transition level
C The initial level
D The primary level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
12) A temporary controlled airway is established between two aerodromes for the purpose of a Royal flight. This is normally established ____ minutes before ETD at the departure airfield until ____ minutes after ETA at the destination.
A 15, 30
B 30, 30
C 30, 60
D 60, 60
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
13) An aircraft taxying for departure is converging with a tractor unit towing another aircraft. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The tractor towing the aircraft must give way
B The aircraft taxying for departure must give way
C The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its right must give way
D The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its left must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
14) You are on a converging course with another aircraft, but you have the right of way. What should you do?
A Maintain level flight and heading, and monitor the situation
B Climb and turn away from the other aircraft
C Descend until you are clear of the other aircraft
D Maintain course and speed and monitor the situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
15) How old is the pilot with a freshly issued EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid for 5 years likely to be?
A 31 years old
B 38 years old
C 42 years old
D 51 years old
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
16) An aircraft identification plate must:
A be made of fireproof material and located near to the main entrance
B include the name of the operator/owner and aircraft registration number
C indicate the maximum number of permitted passengers
D include all of the above details
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
17) Which of the following must always be read back in full to an ATC controller?
A Runway in use
B Wind direction
C Traffic reports
D A request to 'report final'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) On what colour paper would you expect to find an aeronautical information circular (AIC) concerning administration matters?
A Green
B Yellow
C Blue
D White
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
19) You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 73 ft. The QNH you have been given is 989 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
A 1035 hectopascals
B 991 hectopascals
C 987 hectopascals
D 977 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
20) Ground vehicles display hazard warning lights when manoeuvring on the aerodrome. What colour are these lights?
A Red and yellow flashing alternately
B Yellow flashing
C Yellow and white flashing alternately
D Red flashing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
These are the questions that you got wrong:
1) Your aerodrome elevation is 37 ft, and the QFE you have just been given is 999 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QNH to be?
A 1000 hectopascals
B 998 hectopascals
C 1006 hectopascals
D 1007 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
2) A pilot is approaching to land on the runway of an aerodrome that does not have an air traffic control unit. There is an aircraft ahead which has just landed. According to Rule 14, the pilot is only permitted to land if:
A the runway is clear of other aircraft
B both pilots are in agreement that the landing aircraft will be able to land safely
C the landing pilot is able to land without predjudice to the aircraft ahead
D the landing pilot has satisfied himself that any action will not interfere with the safety of others
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
3) Aerodrome elevation is usually described as:
A the highest point on the aerodrome
B the highest point on the apron
C the highest point on the landing area
D the average height of the aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
4) When approaching another aircraft in a head on situation, what should each pilot do?
A Turn to port
B Turn to starboard
C Turn to starboard and climb
D Turn to port and descend
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) If you are following the semicircular level system, which of the following magnetic tracks would you be flying VFR at FL85?
A 020
B 150
C 360
D 220
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
6) An aircraft shall not be flown in simulated instrument flight conditions unless:
A it is fitted with dual controls
B a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
C it is fitted with dual controls and a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
D it is fitted with dual controls and a competent observer is carried
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/Rule23and24.htm
7) A pilot is (correctly) transmitting the transponder code 0033. The pilot is transmitting:
A an ATC assigned en-route 'squawk' code
B the special code to indicate that parachute operations are under way
C a special code to indicate VHF communications radio failure
D the standard UK conspicuity code for normal operations
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
8) An important document concerning Take-off, Climb and Landing performance, printed on pink paper, is an example of:
A a Class 2 NOTAM
B an aeronautical information circular (AIC)
C a temporary warning (TW)
D a mandatory operational procedure issued by the ICAO Chicago Convention
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
9) How soon after a flight must your logbook entry be completed?
A As soon as is reasonably practical
B Within 12 hours of completion of the flight
C Within 48 hours of landing
D Within 24 hours of landing
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
10) When you are on the correct glide slope, using a PAPI (Precision Approach Path Indicator), you will see:
A one red light and one white light
B three green lights
C two red and two white lights
D two white lights
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
11) An aircraft flying inside a control zone at night is required to operate under:
A VFR, SVFR or IFR as appropriate
B IFR
C SVFR
D IFR unless it is flying on a SVFR flight
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/vfratnight.htm
12) According to the provisions of the Chicago Convention, a foreign aircraft flying in a State shall abide by:
A the regulations of the State in which it is flying
B the regulations of the State of registration
C international regulations that apply to all States
D the regulations of the State where the aircraft is insured
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
13) EASA aircraft types that qualify for an EASA Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) are issued with a Certificate of Airworthiness, validated annually with:
A an Operators Check Certificate (OCC)
B an Air Operators Certificate (AOC) to SubPart M of the regulations
C an Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC)
D a Certificate of Maintenance Review (CMR)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
14) You are flying over a large open air rock concert in a field, where the field elevation is 328 ft. Notwithstanding the requirement to 'land clear' in the event of engine failure, what minimum altitude should you maintain?
A 1328 ft
B 1000 m
C 1828 ft
D 1100 m
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/rule5amended.htm
15) What should you do if a wing navigation light fails during a night flight?
A Continue - no action is required
B See if you can conduct an in-flight repair
C Land as soon as is reasonably practical to do so
D Immediately switch off the remaining lights to avoid creating a misleading situation
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) How old is the pilot with a freshly issued EASA Part-MED Class 2 medical valid for 2 years likely to be?
A 22
B 38
C 41
D 50
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/medicalvalidity.htm
17) What is the correct vertical limit of a MATZ?
A 3000 ft above aerodrome level
B 2000 ft above aerodrome level
C 3000 ft above mean sea level
D 2000 ft above mean sea level
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
18) On approach to landing during your first solo, Air Traffic Control (ATC) pass you the message, "Golf Romeo Juliet, Cleared to land, surface wind 300 at 10 knots. What should you reply?
A Landing, wind 300 at 10, Golf Romeo Juliet
B Golf Romeo Juliet is cleared to land with the wind at 10 knots
C Roger, Golf Romeo Juliet
D Cleared to land, Golf Romeo Juliet
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
19) What does a yellow cross on a red background mean when displayed in the signals square of an aerodrome?
A Taxi with caution due to rough surfaces
B Land here in an emergency only
C Taxi on hard surfaces only
D Landing is prohibited
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
20) If you elected to fly IFR, how should you describe your vertical position when you are above the transition altitude?
A Height
B Altitude, using the Regional Pressure Setting
C Flight Level
D Altitude, using the QNH for the nearest aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
Entries in a personal flying logbook must be made in:
A ink or pencil
B ink or indelible pencil
C ink only
D black ink only
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
2) If you elected to fly IFR, how should you describe your vertical position when you are above the transition altitude?
A Height
B Altitude, using the Regional Pressure Setting
C Flight Level
D Altitude, using the QNH for the nearest aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
3) Which of the following must always be read back in full to an ATC controller?
A Runway in use
B Wind direction
C Traffic reports
D A request to 'report final'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
4) The articles of the Chicago Convention require:
A aircraft to be registered in all States that may be overflown
B aircraft to be registered in one State only
C aircraft to be registered in the departure and destination State
D aircraft to be registered in no more than two States at any one time
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
5) If you inadvertently enter a restricted or danger area, what should you do?
A Make a level turn and leave the area by the quickest means
B Descend and leave the area by the quickest means
C Climb and maintain your present course until you have crossed the area
D Immediately commence a climb providing you are within 2000ft of the area ceiling
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
6) When overtaking another aircraft in flight, you should:
A pass to the left of the other aircraft
B pass to the right of the other aircraft
C pass either side maintaining adequate separation
D pass to the left and slightly below the other aircraft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
7) Whilst en route to your destination at night, you see a red and a green light ahead of you at your level. What does this mean?
A You are approaching a high obstruction, lit by markers
B You are approaching another aircraft in a (potentially) head on situation
C You are approaching a hot air balloon which is facing you
D You are approaching an aerodrome and the PAPI is indicating you are too high
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
8) In which of the following airspace types would a VFR flight always be separated from all other traffic?
A Class D
B Class C
C Class B
D Class A
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
9) An aircraft taxying for departure is converging with a tractor unit towing another aircraft. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The tractor towing the aircraft must give way
B The aircraft taxying for departure must give way
C The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its right must give way
D The vehicle that has the other vehicle on its left must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
10) What does a continuously flashing white beacon at an aerodrome indicate?
A Runway is not in use
B The location of the aerodrome
C Aircraft require a radio and PPR to land here
D The position of ATC
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) What arc of visibility should the starboard wingtip light exhibit?
A From dead ahead to 120 degrees to starboard
B From dead ahead to 70 degrees to starboard
C From dead ahead to 90 degrees to starboard
D From dead ahead to 110 degrees to starboard
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
12) EASA aircraft types that qualify for an EASA Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) are issued with a Certificate of Airworthiness, validated annually with:
A an Operators Check Certificate (OCC)
B an Air Operators Certificate (AOC) to SubPart M of the regulations
C an Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC)
D a Certificate of Maintenance Review (CMR)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
13) A pilot may sign the second part of a Duplicate Inspection Certificate for:
A all repairs completed by a qualified engineer
B a minor adjustment to a control when away from base
C an annual service
D routine minor services only
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
14) What is the name given to the area of an aerodrome used for purposes such as unloading / loading of aircraft and operations other than flight operations?
A The manoeuvring area
B The restricted area
C The apron
D The hardstand
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
15) As a newly qualified Private Pilot with experience of fixed undercarriage only, are you permitted to fly aircraft with retractable undercarriages?
A Yes, providing you read through the Flight Manual for that craft
B Yes, after you have accrued 10 hours post qualification
C Yes, but only after completing 'differences training'
D Yes, providing you read the Flight Manual and have at least 25 hours logged as 'pilot in command'
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
16) Which of the following altimeter settings would give you height above an aerodrome?
A QNE
B QNH
C QGH
D QFE
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
17) What is the speed limit for VFR traffic at FL80?
A 140 kt IAS
B 140 kt GS
C 250 kt IAS
D 250 kts TAS
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
18) An aircraft shall not be flown in simulated instrument flight conditions unless:
A it is fitted with dual controls
B a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
C it is fitted with dual controls and a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
D it is fitted with dual controls and a competent observer is carried
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/Rule23and24.htm
19) Which of the following special transponder codes is selected 5 minutes before parachute dropping begins and operated until the parachutists are estimated to have reached the ground?
A 0077
B 7002
C 7003
D 0033
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
20) What does a red square with a single yellow diagonal stripe on the signals area indicate?
A The state of the manoevering area is poor
B Aircraft should land in emergency only
C Runway is closed. Do not land in any circumstance
D Do not taxi on the runway without ATC permission
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
How often are aeronautical information circulars (AIC's) published?
A Weekly
B Fortnightly
C Monthly
D Annually
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
2) If an aircraft is on an international flight, Annex 7 of the Chicago Convention requires that it carries:
A certificates of registration and airworthiness
B personal logbooks for all crew members
C third party liability insurance documents
D all of the above certificates, documents and logbooks
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
3) You are flying VFR in accordance with the semicircular rule on a magnetic track of 300. Which of the following is the correct flight level recommended?
A FL 55
B FL 50
C FL 60
D FL 65
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
4) An aircraft shall not be flown in simulated instrument flight conditions unless:
A it is fitted with dual controls
B a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
C it is fitted with dual controls and a safety pilot is carried in a second control seat
D it is fitted with dual controls and a competent observer is carried
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
An explanation is available at http://www.airquiz.com/explain/Rule23and24.htm
5) You have been intercepted and have been requested to land at an aerodrome you consider inadequate for your aircraft. How do you signal to the intercepting aircraft that you cannot land here?
A Raise your landing gear (if possible) and make an abrupt turn out of the aerodrome circuit
B Switch off your landing light and continue past the designated aerodrome
C Rock your wings once
D Overfly the runway and then circle the aerodrome maintaining a height between 1000 and 2000 ft
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
6) What 'in-flight' visibility is required for VFR flight in class G airspace above 3000ft but below FL100?
A 10 km
B 3 km
C 1800m
D 5 km
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
7) When flying more than 50nm from land, ICAO Annex 6 states that single engined aircraft shall be equipped with:
A liferafts and lifejackets
B lifejackets
C hydrostatically released liferafts
D lifejackets and a liferaft equipped with an emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
8) Whilst en route to your destination at night, you see a red and a green light ahead of you at your level. What does this mean?
A You are approaching a high obstruction, lit by markers
B You are approaching another aircraft in a (potentially) head on situation
C You are approaching a hot air balloon which is facing you
D You are approaching an aerodrome and the PAPI is indicating you are too high
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
9) What is the usual altimeter setting for flight outside controlled airspace whilst en route at 2000 ft?
A QFE
B The Regional Pressure Setting
C 1013 hPa
D The QNH for your destination aerodrome
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
10) An aircraft taxying to the parking area is converging with a vehicle used for runway inspections. Assuming an absence of any instructions from ATC, which of the following statements is correct?
A The aircraft must give way
B The vehicle must give way to the aircraft
C That which has the other on its left must give way
D That which has the other on its right must give way
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was B.
11) You are on final approach to a runway. What colour should the lights that mark the far end of the runway be?
A Red
B White
C Flashing yellow (side to side markers)
D Flashing red
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was A.
12) A balloon is required to display what signal at night?
A A double red light of which at least one light is visible from any direction
B A single white light visible in all directions
C A flashing red light
D A single fixed red light visible in all directions
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was D.
13) You are setting your altimeter at an aerodrome, where the elevation is 33 ft. The QNH you have been given is 1017 hectopascals. What would you expect the aerodrome QFE to be?
A 1029 hectopascals
B 1018 hectopascals
C 1016 hectopascals
D 1013 hectopascals
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
14) When a search and rescue (SAR) operation is initiated, responsibility for alerting individual search and rescue units lies with:
A the aircraft operator
B the aircraft commander
C the rescue coordination centre
D the relevant air traffic control unit
You did not attempt this question. The correct answer was C.
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