1 Following drugs directly activate the respiratory center EXCEPT:

1 Following drugs directly activate the respiratory center EXCEPT:

A Bemegride

B Cоffein-benzoatе natrium

C Aethimizolum

D Cytitonum*

E Libexin

2 The mechanism of Cytiton action is:

A Direct activation of the respiratory center

B The reflex mechanism*

C The mixed mechanism

D None of the above

E All of the above

3 Indicate the drug belonging to antitussives of narcotic type of action:

A Glaucini hydrochloridum

B Aethylmorphine hydrochloride*

C Tusuprex

D Libexine

E Adrenallini hydrochloridum

4 Tick out the drug belonging to non-narcotic antitussives:

A Codeini phosphas

B Aethylmorphini hydrochloridum

C Tusuprex*

D Isadrinum

E Euphyllinum

5 Indicate the expectorant with the reflex mechanism:

A Natrii benzoas

B Derivatives of Ipecacucnha and Thermopsis*

C Codeini phosphas

D Aethylmorphini hydrochloridum

E Trypsini crystallisatum

6 Tick the antitussive agent with a peripheral effect:

A Codeini phosphas

B Libexin*

C Codeini phosphas

D Aethylmorphini hydrochloridum

E Glaucini hydrochloridum

7 All of these drugs contain free sulfhydryl groups EXCEPT:

A Trypsini crystallisatum*

B Acetylcysteinum

C Bromhexinum

D Ambroxolum

E Mucaltinum

8 Which of the following drugs is proteolytic enzyme?

A Trypsini crystallisatum*

B Codeini phosphas

C Acetylcysteinum

D Bromhexinum

E Ambroxolum

9 All of the following drugs destroy disulfide bonds of proteoglycans, which causes depolymerization and reduction of viscosity of sputum, EXCEPT:

A Acetylcysteinum

B Desoxyribonuclease*

C Ambroxolum

D Bromhexinum

E All of the above

10 Which of these groups of drugs is used for asthma treatment?

A Methylxanthines

B M-cholinoblocking agents

C Beta2 – stimulants

D All of above*

E None of the above

11 Tick the drug belonging to non-selective beta2-adrenomimetics:

A Isadrine*

B Salbutamol

C Fenoterol

D Terbutalinum

E Euphyllinum

12 Select the side-effect characteristic for non-selective beta2-adrenomimetics:

A Depression of the breathing center

B Tachycardia*

C Peripheral vasoconstriction

D Dry mouth

E Hyperacidity

13 Pick out the bronchodilator drug related to xanthine:

A Atropini sulfas

B Orciprenalini sulfas

C Adrenalini hydrochloridum

D Theophyllinum*

E Ipratropim bromide

14 Pick out the bronchodilator drug belonging to sympathomimetics:

A Ephedrine*

B Atropini sulfas

C Orciprenalini sulfas

D Adrenalini hydrochloridum

E Salbutamolum

15 The mechanism of methylxanthines action is:

A Inhibition of the enzyme phosphodiesterase*

B Beta₂ -adrenoreceptor stimulation

C Inhibition of the production of inflammatory cytokines

D Inhibition of M-cholinoreceptors

E Irritate receptors of stomach mucosa

16 Which of the following M-cholinoblocking agents is used especially as an anti-asthmatic?

A Atropine sulfas

B Ipratropium bromide*

C Adrenaline hydrochloridum

D Salbutamol

E Ephedrine

17 Indicate the side effect of Theophylline:

A Bradycardia

B Increased myocardial demands for oxygen*

C Depression of respiratory center

D Elevation of the arterial blood pressure

E All of the above

18 All of the following drugs are inhaled glucocorticoids EXCEPT:

A Triamcinolone

B Beclometazone

C Prednisolone

D Ipratropium bromide*

E Dexamethasone

19 All of the following groups of drugs are for thrombosis treatment EXCEPT:

A Anticoagulant drugs

B Antifibrinolitic drugs*

C Fibrinolitic drugs

D Antiplatelet drugs

E All of the above

20 Pick out the drug belonging to anticoagulants of direct action:

A Aspirin

B Heparin*

C Neodicumarinum

D Syncumar

E Phenylinum

21 Which of the following drugs has low-molecular weight?

A Heparin

B Fraxiparinum*

C Aspirin

D Vikasolum

E Fibrinogen

22 Indicate the drug belonging to antagonists of heparin:

A Aspirin

B Fraxiparin

C Protamine sulfate*

D Vikasolum

E Fibrinogen

23 Which of the following drugs belongs to Coumarin derivatives?

A Heparin

B Vikasolum

C Fibrinogen

D Aspirin

E Warfarin*

24 All of these drugs are antiplatelet agents EXCEPT:

A Aspirin

B Urokinase*

C Ticlopidine

D Clopidogrel

E Adrenalini hydrochloridum

25 Compared to ranitidine, cimetidine:

A is more effective in healing duodenal ulcers

B is less selective for H₂ receptors

C produces a lower rate of recurrence of ulcers after cessation of treatment

D is a more potent inhibitor of the hepatic P-450 system *

E has little tendency to produce antiandrogenic effects

26 In the treatment of gastric and duodenal ulcers:

A effective initial therapy may utilize antacids, sucralfate, or famotidine*

B recurrence of ulcers happens in less than 10% of patients upon cessation of therapy with H2 antagonists

C omeprazole should be reserved for maintenance therapy after 8 weeks of treatment with ranitidine

D cimetidine is the drug of choice in older patients with impaired renal function

E the use of ranitidine should not exceed 8 weeks in order to avoid colonization of the stomach by bacteria

27 All of the following statements about misoprostol are true except:

A inhibits acid secretion by parietal cells

B when given to patients taking NSAIDs, tends to replace endogenous PGE2

C causes a significant incidence of abdominal pain and diarrhea

D is more effective than famotidine in healing gastric ulcers *

E can induce contraction of the uterus

28 Which of the following statements about omeprazole is the least valid?

A is indicated for the therapy of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

B has a duration of action that far outlasts its lifetime in plasma

C formation of active drug requires low pH

D causes a greater inhibition of gastric acid secretion than does ranitidine

E heals ulcers more slowly than cimetidine does *

29 Cisapride:

A inhibits the actions of dopamine in the G.I. tract

B can cause hyperprolactinemia

C promotes gastric emptying by stimulating 5HT₄ receptors in the myenteric plexus and other intramural ganglia *

D can be used to treat esophageal reflux in part because it reduces gastric acidity as effectively as does cimetidine

E produces little or no increase in motility of the colon

30 Antacids that are used in the treatment of duodenal ulcers:

A are less efficacious than ranitidine in promoting healing of ulcers

B are usually mixtures of Al(OH)₃ and Mg(OH)₂ which neutralize H⁺ *

C are effective in part because they suppress gastric acid secretion

D are more apt to cause constipation as the dosage is raised

E have important bacteriocidal effects on Helicobacter pylori

31 Methylcellulose, diphenoxylate, bismuth subcitrate, bisacodyl, MgSO₄:

A Organic stool softener; promotes colonic motility *

B Poorly absorbed; used for rapid effect before bowel surgery

C Poorly absorbed opioid; slows transit of intestinal contents

D Promotes healing of peptic ulcers

E Promotes secretion of H₂O into the colon; chronic use can produce "cathartic colon"

32 Bismuth subcitrate, bisacodyl, MgSO₄, methylcellulose, diphenoxylate:

A Organic stool softener; promotes colonic motility

B Poorly absorbed; used for rapid effect before bowel surgery

C Poorly absorbed opioid; slows transit of intestinal contents

D Promotes healing of peptic ulcers *

E Promotes secretion of H₂O into the colon; chronic use can produce "cathartic colon"

33 Choose the substance that inhibits histamine induced gastric acid secretion:

A PGI2 *

B Pyrilamine

C Diphenhydramine

D Meclizine

E Astemizole

34 Infections with Helicobacter pylori:

A can be suppressed by ranitidine but not by antacids

B can be eradicated with omeprazole and tetracycline

C can be exacerbated by treatment with misoprostil because the drug stimulates bowel function

D cause the great majority of duodenal ulcers *

E can be suppressed by sucralfate

35 Which of the following diuretic agents would be the least apt to cause hypokalemic alkalosis?

A Hydrochlorothiazide

B triamterene *

C furosemide

D chlorthalidone

E bumetanide

36 Both sucrafate and bismuth subcitrate:

A eradicate Helicobacter pylori infections in the stomach

B form a protective barrier on ulcer craters*

C have significant acid neutralizing capacity

D have significant H2blocking actions

E can produce Al³⁺ toxicity in renally impaired patients

37 The mechanism by which thiazides induce hypokalemic alkalosis includes all of the following steps except:

A increased delivery of Na to the late distal/cortical collecting duct

B increased intraluminal secretion of K by the principal cells

C inhibition of the NaCl cotransporter in the early distal tubule

D decreased concentration of Ca in the lumen of the cortical collecting duct

E reduced proximal reabsorption of HCO₃ *

38 Toxicities associated with the loop diuretics include all of the following EXCEPT:

A Hypokalemia

B severe hyponatremia *

C hyperglycemia

D hypomagnesaemia

E hyperuricemia

39 Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are not used to:

A treat glaucoma

B reduce the likelihood of renal stones *

C treat metabolic alkalosis

D promote the excretion of uric acid

E alkalinize the urine

40 Furosemide:

A reaches its site of action primarily by tubular secretion *

B produces alkalosis primarily by reducing secretion of H⁺ in the distal tubule

C inhibits Na+ reabsorption in the proximal tubule

D reduces excretion of Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺

E reduces renin secretion

41 Side effect associated with spironolactone but not with thiazide diuretics:

A hypokalemia

B increased renin release

C gynecomastia *

D hyperuricemia

E hyperglycemia

42 Mannitol:

A is useful in the treatment of patients with congestive heart failure

B reaches its site of action largely by tubular secretion

C competes for tubular reabsorption of glucose

D can protect against accumulation of nephrotoxic substances *

E has no effect on the excretion of Na⁺

43 All of the following increase urinary excretion of Cl^- except:

A acetazolamide *

B furosemide

C mannitol

D ethacrynic acid

E amiloride

44 Which of the following statements is true for both furosemide and hydrochlorothiazide?

A promotes excretion of uric acid

B acutely decreases HCO3- excretion and can produce alkalosis with chronic administration*

C promotes excretion of Ca²⁺

D reduces the osmotic gradient in the renal medulla

E reaches its site of action mostly by glomerular filtration

45 Which one of the following processes occurs in the loop of Henle?

A Thiazide diuretics inhibit Na+ reabsorption via ENaC (the electrogenic Na⁺ channel in the late distal tubule and cortical collecting duct)

B Tubular (luminal) fluid becomes isotonic to plasma by the end of the TAL.

C NH₄⁺ is secreted in the net sense into the lumen.

D The lumen is electrically positive with respect to the interstitial fluid. *

E Mg²⁺ is reabsorbed via an ATP powered pump in the tight junction

46 All of the following statements about metoclopramide are true EXCEPT:

A can produce hyperprolactinemia

B often produces constipation *

C increases tone of the lower esophageal sphincter

D attenuates nausea produced by cancer chemotherapeutic agents

E actions on gastric motility are reduced by atropine

47 A 23-year-old graduate student goes on a cruise to the Bahamas. She considers taking a drug for sea-sickness as she is prone to developing motion sickness. Which compound and time of administration would be most effective?

A Transdermal scopolamine taken during the voyage

B Fexofenadine taken 4 hours prior to sailing

C Transdermal scopolamine taken 4 hours prior to sailing*

D Cauterizing taken 1 hour prior to sailing

E Metoclopramide taken during the voyage

48 Which of the following antiemetic drugs possesses clinically significant dopaminergic antagonist activity, but is not used as an antipsychotic agent?

A Ondansetron

B Promethazine

C Chlorpromazine

D Metoclopramide *

E Dimenhydrinate

49 Indicate the drug belonging to fibrinoliytic inhibitors:

A Aminocapronic acid*

B Ticlopidine

C Streptokinase

D Vitamin K

E Cytitonum

50 Aminocapronic acid is a drug of choice for treatment of:

A Acute myocardial infarction

B Bleeding from fibrinolytic therapy*

C Heart failure

D Multiple pulmonary emboli

E Sotalol

51 This drug is a Class IA antiarrhythmic drug:

A Sotalol

B Propranolol

C Verapamil

D Quinidine*

E Ketaminum

52 This drug is used in treating supraventricular tachycardias:

A Digoxin*

B Dobutaminum

C Amrinone

D Dopamine

E Ticlopidine

53 Select an endocrine drug which isan amino acid derivative:

A Insulin

B Hydrocortisone

C Calcitonin

D Thyroxine*

E Dobutaminum

54 Select an endocrine drug which is a peptide derivative:

A Oxytocin*

B Prednisolone

C Progesterone

D Ketotifen

E Cromolyn sodium

55 Select an endocrine drug which isa steroidal derivative:

A Mercazolylum

B Insulin

C Levothyroxine

D Hydrocortisone*

E Calcitonin

56 Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following, EXCEPT:

A Acute peptic ulcers

B Cushing’s syndrome (rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the appearance of the face – moon faces)

C Salicylism (vomiting, tinnitus, decreased hearing, and vertigo)*

D Hypomania or acute psychosis

E Hyperglycemia

57 Serious side effects of glucocorticoids include the following:

A Adrenal suppression

B Insomnia, behavioral changes (primarily hypomania)

C Rounding, puffiness, fat deposition and plethora alter the appearance of the face – moon faces

D All of the above*

E None of the above

58 Which of the following property combinations is peculiar to the majority of NSAIDs?

A Antihistaminic, antipyretic, analgesic

B Immunodepressive, anti-inflammatory, analgesic

C Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory*

D Anti-inflammatory, immunodepressive, antihistaminic

E All of the above

59 Which of the following are not treated with Prednisone?

A Cushing's disease

B Testicular cancer*

C Lympthomas

D Chronic leukemias

E All of the above

60 Which of the following are NOT treated with Dexamethasone?

A Inflammation

B Asthma

C Addison's disease

D Wilson's disease*

E All of the above

61 Which of the following is the antidote for the toxin Heparin?

A Protamine sulfas*

B N-acetylcysteine

C Glucagon

D Methylene blue

E All of the above

62 Which of the following are NOT treated with Hydrochlorothiazide?

A CHF

B Hypercalciuria

C Nephritis*

D Edema

E Hypertension

63 Which of the following are NOT treated with Nifedipine?

A Angina

B Arrhythmias

C Fluid retention*

D Hypertension

E All of the above

64 Which of the following is NOT a side effect of the Diuretics (Loop diuretics)?

A Alkalosis

B Nausea*

C Hypotension

D Potassium deficits

E All of the above

65 Which of the following is NOT a side effect of the Vasodilator (Nifedipine)?

A Nausea

B Flush appearanc

C Vertigo

D Sexual dysfunction*

E All of the above

66 Which of the following is not a side effect of the Ace Inhibitor (Captopril)?

A Rash

B Angioedema

C Cough

D Congestion*

E All of the above

67 Caffeine is

A Analeptic and antidepressant

B Analeptic and psychomotor stimulant*

C Antidepressant and psychomotor stimulant

D Antidepressant and nootropic

E Analeptic and nootropic

68 Complications, arising up at codeine application as an antitussive mean

A Dryness in the mouth cavity

B Tachycardia

C Tachypnoe

D Artery pressure increase

E Constipation, medicinal dependence*

69 Cordiaminum is used at

A Hypertensive disease

B Bronchial asthma

C Collapse*

D Bronchitis

E Gastritis

70 Indicate the peculiarility of Furosemide action:

A Slow effect development

B Fast effect development*

C The duration of action (10-14 days)

D Low diuretic activity

E It doesn’t influence K concentration in the blood

71 Mast cell stabilizers are most effective in treating bronchoconstriction associated with:

A Emphysema

B Exposure to cold

C Allergens*

D Infection

E Tachycardia

72 A patient with rheumatoid arthritis who had been treated with indometacin has got signs of gastropathy. What activity of the drug can this complication be connected with?

A Anticyclooxygenase*

B Antikinine

C Antiserotonin

D Antihistamine

E Locally irritating

Дата добавления: 2015-11-04