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Text test questions 6 страница

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  1. What component is added into the nutrient media for examination of decarboxilase activity of bacteria?

A. Proteins

B. Peptones

C. *Amino acids

D. Lipids

E. Carbohydrates

  1. What components may be the source of nitrogen in nutrient media?

A. meat

B. fish

C. meat and bone flour

D. casein

E. *all answers are correct

  1. What dyes can inhibit bacterial growth:

A. Brilliant green

B. Rivanol

C. Acriflavin

D. none of them.

E. *all of them

  1. What enzyme of aerobic bacteria can stop the harmful effect of hydrogen peroxide?

A. lipase

B. protease

C. hydrolase

D. *catalase

E. urease

  1. What enzyme of aerobic bacteria does provide neutralization of hydrogen peroxide toxic effect?

A. lipase

B. protease

C. hydrolase

D. *catalase

E. urease

  1. What enzymes do control the substrate splitting with joining the water molecules?

A. Oxydoreductases

B. Isomerases

C. Ligases

D. *Hydrolases

E. Transferases

  1. What enzymes do provide oxydation-reduction reactions?

A. Hydrolases

B. Isomerases

C. Transferases

D. Lyases

E. *Oxydoreductases

  1. What enzymes do provide the reactions of groups of atoms transfer?

A. *Transferases

B. Ligases

C. Lyases

D. Oxydoreductases

E. Isomerases

  1. What factors do not influence on the bacterial reproduction?

A. age of bacteria

B. composition of nutrient medium

C. medium рН

D. *year season

E. temperatures, aeration

  1. What finished products do appear in the semi-solid Giss’ media after sugar utilization?

A. acid

B. alkali

C. gas

D. *acid and gas

E. fixing the finished products is not succeeded

  1. What group of nutrient media does Ressel’s medium belong to?

A. Universal

B. Liquid

C. Selective

D. Elective

E. *Differential-diagnostic

  1. What groups of methods for creation of anaerobic conditions for anaerobic bacteria cultivation do you know?

A. mechanical

B. physical

C. chemical

D. biological

E. *all answers are correct

  1. What is a biological catalyst?

A. nucleic acids

B. *enzymes

C. metabolites

D. Plasmids

E. Transposons

  1. What is a chemical origin of agar-agar?

A. Lipids

B. Proteins

C. *Polysaccharides

D. Carbohydrates

E. Amino acids

  1. What is a chemical origin of gelatin?

A. Polysaccharides

B. Lipids

C. *Proteins

D. Carbohydrates

E. Amino acids

  1. What is a name of enzyme localized inside a bacterial cell:

A. adaptive

B. *endoenzymes

C. exoenzymes

D. constitutive

E. all answers are right

  1. What is a reason molecular oxygen toxic action according to bacteria?

A. formation of singlet oxygen

B. formation of hydrogen peroxide

C. formation of ozone

D. *all answers are correct

E. all answers are incorrect

  1. What is a virus that infects bacteria called?

A. Virophage

B. *Bacteriophage

C. Arbovirus

D. Rhabdovirus

E. Provirus

  1. What is always required for a successful first step in viral infection of an eucaryotic cell?

A. the presence of the correct viral polymerase

B. *the presence of the correct virus receptor

C. the presence of a nucleus in the eucaryotic cell

D. the presence of cellular polyribosomes

E. the presence of the correct number of viral genome segments

  1. What is chemical composition of prokaryotic cell?

A. Water - 50-60 %, dry weight - 40-60 %.

B. Water - 60-90 %, dry weight - 10-30 %.

C. *Water - 70-90 %, dry weight - 10-30 %.

D. Water - 40-50 %, dry weight - 50-60 %.

E. Water - 20-40 %, dry weight - 60-80 %.

  1. What is chemostate?

A. synonym of term of «jar»

B. vehicle which allows to study chemical properties of bacteria

C. vehicle, in which it is possible to make sterilization of media

D. *vehicle which allows to make continuous cultivation of microorganisms in laboratory conditions

E. vehicle which allows to study antigenic properties of bacteria

  1. What is one component of all mammalian viruses?

A. the envelope

B. the polymerase

C. the icosahedral capsid

D. the lipid

E. *the nucleic acid

  1. What is raw material for agar-agar obtaining?

A. Skin

B. Meat

C. *Algae

D. Arthral cartilage

E. Bones

  1. hat is the role of the 'early genes' of a mammalian virus?

A. *initiation and regulation of virus replication

B. maintenance of the virus outside the cell

C. coding for the structural proteins of the virus

D. determining the group specific antigens of the virus

E. coding for the lipid components of the viral envelope

  1. What kind of embryo is often used for viral assays?

A. Mouse

B. Rat

C. Cat

D. Dog

E. *Chicken

  1. What mechanism of action of ultraviolet light against bacteria?

A. does not have any effect according to the cell

B. affect RNA molecules

C. *affect DNA molecules and as a result forms thymine dimers

D. affect the ribosomes

E. affect the structure of cell wall

  1. What mechanism of ultrasound action against bacteria?

A. destroys cell DNA

B. destroys cell RNA

C. destroys cell mesosome

D. *forms a cavitation cavity, filled in the pair of liquid, with high pressure inside

E. an ultrasound does not influence on bacteria

  1. What is mechanism of reproduction of bacteria:

A. *by a simple transversal division

B. by a mitosis

C. by spore formation

D. by sexual way

E. by a disjunctive way

  1. What medium is it possible to use for checking the utilization of a few sugars?

A. Roux’s medium

B. Leffler’s medium

C. *Giss’s media

D. Ploskirev’s medium

E. EMB medium

  1. What microbes do belong to capneic one?

A. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium perfringens

B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Vibrio cholerae

C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Salmonella typhi

D. *Brucella abortus

E. Lactobacillus acidophilus

  1. What microbes do belong to facultative anaerobes?

A. Clostridium tetani, Clostridium perfringens

B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Vibrio cholerae

C. *Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Salmonella typhi

D. Brucella abortus

E. Lactobacillus acidophilus

  1. What microbes have ability to penetrate through normal skin?

A. Staphylococcus aureus

B. Shigella flexneri

C. Salmonella patience

D. *Yersinia pestis

E. Streptococcus pyogenes

  1. What microorganisms do have a tendency to superficial growth?

A. Obligate anaerobes

B. Capneic bacteria

C. *Obligate aerobes

D. Microaerophilic bacteria

E. Facultative anaerobes

  1. What part of dry weight of the cell does belong to protein?

A. %.

B. %.

C. *55 %.

D. %.

E. %

  1. What phase is characterized by high speed of bacterial division and increasing their number?

A. Stationary

B. *Exponential

C. Initial

D. Death

E. Expotential

  1. What phase of microbial growth in periodic culture does not exist?

A. Initial

B. Exponential

C. *Accumulations

D. Stationary

E. Decline

  1. What reaction can be utilized for examination of toxigenic properties of microbes?

A. Agglutination test

B. Complement fixation test

C. *Precipitation test

D. Gruber’s test

E. Indirect hemagglutination test

  1. What signs of hemolytic activity of bacteria are present on blood MPA?

A. appearance of areas of darkening on a mat red background

B. the changes of medium color

C. appearance of bright red colonies of microbes, if they cause haemolysis

D. *appearance of colorless areas surround the colonies on mat red background if the have hemolytic activity

E. appearance of colorless colonies

  1. What stage of meat water preparing is the most important?

A. Making meat small

B. Filtration

C. *Extraction

D. Boiling

E. Sterilization

  1. What substance is it necessary to add to peptone water for creation the optimum conditions for the isolation of cholerae vibrio?

A. % sodium sulfate

B. % acids

C. *1 % alkali

D. % iron sulfate

E. % sodium chloride

  1. What substrate is utilized for providing the necessary density of nutrient medium?

A. proteins

B. lipids

C. *agar-agar

D. carbohydrates

E. there is no correct answer

  1. What technique does belong to the biological method of anaerobic conditions creation?

A. *Joint cultivation of anaerobic bacteria and Serratia marcescens, which utilizes an oxygen intensively

B. Cultivation of anaerobes in the organism of laboratory animals

C. Cultivation of anaerobes in the chicken embryos

D. All answers are correct

E. All answers are wrong

  1. What technique does belong to the chemical method of anaerobic conditions creation?

A. use of Gas generating box

B. application of pyrogallol on the bottom of the jar

C. use the high column of nutrient medium

D. introduction of pieces of liver or muscles and vitamin K3 as supplement in the medium

E. *right answer A, B, D

  1. What technique does belong to the mechanical method of anaerobic conditions creation?

A. use of Gas generating box

B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil

C. use the high column of nutrient medium

D. *right answers B and C.

E. right answers A, B and C

  1. What technique does belong to the physical method of anaerobic conditions creation?

A. use of Gas generating box

B. to cover the surface of medium with the layer of vaseline oil

C. use the high column of nutrient medium

D. *regeneration of nutrient medium before inoculation

E. correct answer is not present

  1. What type of bacterial growth near the inner part of tube wall is there may be?

A. formation of flakes, fastened to the inner wall of test tube

B. by diffuse turbidity

C. formation of grains, fastened on the inner wall of test tube.

D. formation of pellicle on the surface of medium

E. *correct answers A and C

  1. What type of sediment may be formed by microbes in liquid nutrient media?

A. Crumble-like

B. homogeneous

C. viscid

D. mucous

E. *all answers are correct

  1. What types of bacterial fermentation do you know?

A. Lactic-acid fermentation

B. alcoholic fermentation

C. butiric-acid fermentation

D. *all answers are correct

E. all answers are wrong

  1. What vitamins are necessary for development of bacteria?

A. pantothenic acid

B. Cholin

C. nicotine acid

D. *all answers are correct

E. all answers of incorrect

  1. What was the first virus shown to cause disease?

A. Polio

B. Hepatitis

C. *Tobacco mosaic virus

D. Potato blight

E. Influenza

  1. When antibody titers are used in the laboratory diagnosis of viral infections, the diagnosis can be made only if

A. the acute titer is less than 10

B. the convalescent titcr is greater than 20

C. there is a twofold rise in titer

D. *there is a fourfold rise in titer

E. there is no change in titer

  1. Where does point of replication localize, when the division of bacteria begins?

A. on DNA of cell

B. on мРNA

C. on a cytoplasm membrane

D. on a cellular wall

E. *on DNA, located in the place of connection of mesosome and cytoplasm membrane

  1. Which is not true of virions?

A. Contain DNA

B. Contain RNA

C. Are extracellular

D. Reproduce independently

E. *Induce host metabolism

  1. Which of the following is not a single-stranded RNA virus?

A. *Herpes

B. Rhinovirus

C. Influenza

D. Rabies Virus

E. echovirus

  1. Which of the following is not found in all viruses

A. protein

B. enzymes

C. nucleic acid

D. *a capsid

E. an envelope

  1. Which of the following is semi-continuous (diploid) cell line?

A. *WI-38.

B. HeLa.

C. HEp-2.

D. KB.

E. Detroid 5

  1. Which of the following is/are continuous cell line/s?

A. HeLa.

B. HEp-2.

C. KB.

D. Detroit 5

E. *All of the above

  1. Which of the following is/are synthesized from late mRNA?

A. Phage structural proteins

B. Proteins that help with phage assembly without becoming part of the virion structure

C. Proteins involved in cell lysis and phage release

D. *All of the above

E. None of the above

  1. Which of the following viruses makes mRNA from an RNA template?

A. poxvirus

B. retrovirus

C. *picornavirus

D. herpesvirus

E. adenovirus

F.

  1. Which one of the viral components is smallest?

A. *capsomers

B. capsid

C. nucleocapsid

D. virion

E. envelope

  1. Which structure of viruses is synthesized from late mRNA?

A. *Phage structural proteins

B. DNA polymerase

C. Early proteins

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

  1. Which viruses are least accurate?

A. Temperate virus

B. Naked virus

C. Virion

D. *RNA phage

E. DNA phage

  1. Which viruses replicate in the nucleus?

A. Poxviruses

B. Paramyxoviruses

C. Picornaviruses

D. *Parvoviridae

E. Orthomyxoviruses

  1. Which wirus has a naked nucleocapsid?

A. herpes virus

B. mumps

C. influenza

D. chicken pox

E. *picorna virus

  1. Who was discoverer of phenomenon of anaerobiosis?

A. I. Mechnikov

B. S. Vinogradsky

C. *L. Pasteur

D. R. Koch

E. E. Ru

  1. A degree of heterotrophy may be different. The highest heterotrophy has prokaryotic organisms that are able to live only inside the living cells. There are:

A. staphylococci and streptococci

B. escherichia and salmonellas

C. mycobacteria and bordetella

D. *rickettsia and chlamidia

E. vibrios and treponema

  1. Colonies of bacteria that grow on solid nutrient media can differentiate according to:

A. consistencies

B. density

C. color

D. *all answers are correct

E. all answers are wrong

  1. Constructive and power metabolisms are closely connected, sometimes their ways coincide, and the same substrates are utilized for different necessities. Such ways are called:

A. metabolic

B. *amphibolic

C. associative

D. dissociative

E. polybolic

  1. During the evolution bacteria produced the ways of energy reception. There are:

A. fermentation

B. respiration

C. photosynthesis

D. *all answers are correct

E. all answers are wrong

  1. For biological control of sterilization quality microorganisms are used. What important feature do they have?

A. gram-positive

B. gram-negative

C. form capsules

D. *form spores

E. form pili

  1. For verifying the peptolytic properties of bacteria what substances are examined in nutrient medium?

A. carbon acid and water

B. glucose and lactose

C. carbon acid and nitrogen

D. mannitol and methanol

E. *indole and hydrogen sulphide

  1. How much time is it necessary to cultivate the bacteria on Bismuth-sulfite agar for final evaluation of growth?

A. hours

B. hours

C. hours

D. *48 hours

E. hour

  1. In Olkenitsky’s medium Salmonella typhi, which decomposes glucose to acid was inoculated. What changes will be observed in a medium, which certify utilization of glucose?

A. *The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar

B. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow the slant surface of agar

C. The changes of the color from a pinky to red the slant surface of agar

D. The changes of the color from a pinky to yellow of the column of agar and the slant surface of agar

E. The changes of the color from a pinky to red of the column of agar

  1. In what nutrient media for cultivation of bacteria 7,5-10 % chloride of sodium may be added?

A. Yolk-salt agar

B. Buchin’s medium

C. Mannitol-salt agar

D. Blood-sugar agar

E. *Right answers A and C

  1. It is necessary to create anaerobic conditions for cultivation of proper bacteria by biological method. What method could you propose?

A. Zeissler’s method

B. Shukevich’s method

C. Veynberg’s method

D. *Fortner’s method

E. Pasteur’s method

  1. It is necessary to prepare a coagulated serum for isolation of culture of Corynebacterium diphtheriae. How can you do serum coagulation?

A. -90 °С during 10 min

B. -80 °С during 30 min

C. -60 °С during 30 min

D. -100 °С during 30 min

E. *80-90 °С during 1 hour.

  1. It is necessary to sterilize an object that destroys at 100 °С. Choose the comfortable regime of tyndalization:

A. sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 2-3 days one after the other

B. single sterilization by water bath at 98-100 °С during 10 min

C. sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 3-4 days one after the other

D. *sterilization by water bath at 58-60 °С during a hour 5-6 day one after the other

E. sterilization by water bath at 80-90 °С during a hour 2-3 days one after the other

  1. Material from a sick woman must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium for diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis. Indicate this medium?

A. Mueller’s medium

B. % alkaline peptone water

C. Ru’s medium

D. Blood agar

E. *Saburo’s medium

  1. Material from patient with typhoid fever must be inoculated on selective nutrient medium. Choose most optimum from them:

A. *Mueller’s medium

B. % alkaline peptone water

C. Ru’s medium

D. Blood agar

E. Saburo’s medium

  1. Microorganisms that are used as an energy source chemical reaction in the medium belong to:

A. heterotrophs

B. autotrophs

C. lithotrophs

D. organotrophs

E. *chemotrophs

  1. On the mucous membranes of human there are corynebacteria. What selective medium for their cultivation?

A. Mueller’s medium

B. % alkaline peptone water

C. Ru’s medium

D. *Agar with furazolidonum and tween

E. Saburo’s medium

  1. One of the asepsis measures is disinfection. What is it – a concept "disinfection"?

A. deleting bacterial and fungal spores of the objects of environment

B. elimination of pathogenic microorganisms in a wound

C. *decontamination of pathogenic microorganisms is the

D. diminishing the degree of microbial contamination of skin and mucous membranes

E. elimination viruses in the environment

  1. What component is it necessary to take for carrying out presumptive agglutination test for examination of bacterial antigens?

A. Precipitating serum

B. *Agglutinating serum

C. Neutralizing serum

D. Hemolytic serum

E. Right answer is not present

  1. What finished products does appear in the semi-solid Giss’s media after sugar utilization?

A. acid

B. alkali

C. gas

D. *acid and gas

E. fixing the finished products is not succeeded

  1. What indicator is utilized in a medium with an urea according to Christensen?

A. Andrede

B. Neutral red

C. *Phenol red

D. Bromthymol blue

E. Thymol blue

  1. According to the colony relief there may have such form:

A. Flat

B. Convex

C. Dome-shaped

D. Pitted

E. *All answers are correct

  1. According to what signs can we check the purity of selected bacterial culture?

A. Biochemical and serologic

B. *Cultural (signs of growth) and morphological

C. Tinctorial and biochemical

D. Susceptibility to phages and antibiotics

E. Right answer is not present

  1. After practical classes it is necessary to kill bacterial cultures that were used by students. Choose optimum regime of sterilization in an autoclave:

A. *134 °С 40 minutes

B. °С 20 minutes

C. °С 15 minutes

D. °С 10 minutes

E. °С 30 minutes

  1. Bacteria that form R-colonies have all features, EXCEPT:

A. *does not have capsules

B. have capsules

C. sometimes does not have flagella

D. low or absent virulence

E. easily phagocytable

  1. Bacteria that form S-colonies have all features, EXCEPT

A. *easily phagocytable

B. poorly phagocytable

C. biochemically more active

D. isolated in the acute stage of disease

E. have capsules

  1. Biochemical identification is examination of bacterial species according to their:

A. *enzymes

B. toxins

C. allergens

D. plasmids

E. antigens

  1. Biological identification is carrying out by:

A. allergic tests

B. *inoculation of laboratory animals

C. agglutination test

D. biochemical reactions

E. cultivation on species

  1. Choose bacteria susceptible to desiccation.

A. *Gononococci

B. Vibrio cholerae

C. Shigella

D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

E. Salmonella typhi

  1. Choose the method of inoculation of bacteria, based on mechanical principle?

A. Roux’s method

B. Gram’s method

C. Inoculation by a needle

D. *Drigalsky’s method

E. Morozov’s method

  1. Cultural identification is examination of bacterial species according to:

A. *character of growth

B. character of staining

C. enzyme activity

D. all answers are correct

E. all answers are wrong

  1. Cultural properties – there are:

A. character of bacterial staining

B. *character of growth of bacteria on/in nutrient medium

C. character of biological features of bacteria

D. all answers are correct

E. all answers are wrong

  1. During examination of peptolytic properties what products are checked in a nutrient medium:

A. Carbonic acids and waters

B. Glucose and lactose

C. Carbonic acid and nitrogen

D. Mannitol and methanol

E. *Indole and hydrogen sulfide

  1. During the isolation of pure culture of anaerobic microorganisms the isolated colony is inoculated on/in:

A. *Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium

B. Giss’s medium

C. Zeissler’s medium

D. Endo’s medium

E. Ploskirev’s medium

  1. Ethylene oxide may be used for sterilization of all equipment, EXCEPT:

A. equipment for anesthesia

B. *nutrient media

C. prostheses

D. endoscope instruments

E. catgut

  1. For chemical sterilization by gases all of them are used, EXCEPT:

A. formaldehyde

B. chloroform

C. beta-propiolactone

D. ethylene oxide

E. *methane

  1. For diagnosis of what diseases biological identification is most important?

A. Tuberculosis

B. Botulism

C. Tetanus

D. Salmonellosis

E. *All answers are correct

  1. For examination of saccharolytic properties of bacteria we can use such medium:

A. Veinberg’s medium

B. Zeissler’s medium

C. *Giss’ media

D. Kitt-Tarozzi’s medium

E. Milk

  1. For inoculation of microbes according to Drigalsky’s method we can use:

A. Bacteriological loop

B. *Spatula

C. Bacteriological needle

D. Jar

E. All answers are correct

  1. For inoculation of microbes by streak’s technique we can use:

A. *Bacteriological loop

B. Spatula

C. Bacteriological needle

D. All answers are wrong

E. All answers are correct

  1. For mechanical separation of bacteria is not used such method:

A. Pasteur’s serial dilution

B. Koch’s method

C. Drigalsky’s method

D. Streak’s method

E. *Leffler’s method

  1. For obtaining the isolated colonies of aerobic bacteria tested material is inoculated:

A. *on solid nutrient media

B. in liquid nutrient media

C. in laboratory animals

D. in chicken embryo

E. in cell cultures

  1. For the selection of pure cultures the proper methods are used. Choose one of inoculation technique:

A. Fortner’s method

B. *Drigalsky’s method

C. Membrane filters’ method

D. Gins’s method

E. Leffler’s method

  1. For what purpose does microbiologist carry out identification of pure cultures?

A. For cognition

B. For treatment

C. *For diagnostic

D. For prophylactic

E. For anamnesis

  1. Genetic identification is examination of bacterial species according to:

A. allergic tests

B. biotests in animals

C. *polymerase chain reaction

D. phage typing

E. examination of bacterial susceptibility to antibiotics

  1. Heat oven may be used for sterilization of all objects, EXCEPT:

A. tubes

B. Petry’s plates

C. *rubber corks

D. metallic instruments

E. heat-resistant powders

  1. How is it possible to carry out control of sterility of nutrient media after their preparing?

A. By keeping in incubator at 37 °С for a few hours.

B. By keeping in incubator at a temperature 42 °С for a few hours

C. By keeping at 18-20 °С. For a few hours

D. *By keeping in incubator for a few days at 37 °С.

E. Right answer is not present

  1. How is it possible to divide microorganisms according to spore formation for isolation of pure culture?

A. To cool the tested material before inoculation, as spores are insusceptible to the action of low temperatures

B. *To heat the tested material before inoculation, as spores are heat stable

C. To inoculate tested material and cultivate it in anaerobic conditions

D. To inoculate tested material, which contains spore forming bacilli in laboratory animals

E. To separate microorganisms according to their spore formation is impossible

  1. How is it possible to separate microorganisms according to their motility?

A. To inoculate tested material on the upper part of slant agar

B. *To inoculate tested material in the drop of fluid in the lower part of slant agar

C. To do inoculation of tested material by a prick in the slant agar

D. To separate microorganisms is impossible

E. To add to the tested material some substance which cause coagulation flagella protein

  1. How is it possible to verify motility of bacteria that form a colony?

A. *By wet-mount technique

B. By Grey’s technique

C. Staining according to Zdrodovsky’s technique

D. By scanning microscope

E. By radioisotope method


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